JKSSB Veterinary Pharmacist Question Paper 2025 with Answers

1. Consider the following statements regarding shifting cultivation:
I. It is also known as “slash and burn” agriculture.
II. In India, it is mainly practiced in Northeast region.
III. In Northeast India it is known as Jhunm cultivation.
IV. This type of agriculture is not done anywhere else in the world except India.

Choose correct option.
A) 1,2 and 3 only
B) 1,2 and 4 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: (A) 1,2 and 3 only

2. Name the Indian river known as the “Dakshin Ganga”?
A) Krishna
B) Godavari
C) Narmada
D) Kaveri

Answer: (B) Godavari

3. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

Answer: (B) 1,,2 and 4

4. Match the following events with their years:

Events	Years
i) Civil Disobedience Movement	1 1919
ii) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre	2 1942
iii) Quit India Movement	3 1930
iv) Simon Commission in India	4 1928

Choose the correct answer:
A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
B) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
C) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
D) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2

Answer:(B) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4

5. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present did not dominate the scene.
II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (C) Both I and II

6. Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?
A) Bangladesh
B) Bhutan
C) Myanmar
D) Maldives

Answer:(C) Myanmar

7. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I	List – II
1 Poverty Reduction Programme	i) Mid-day Meals
2 Human Development Scheme	ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
3 Social Assistance Scheme	iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
4 Minimum Need Scheme	iv) MNREGA

Codes:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer:(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

8. In which field is the Kalinga Award given?
A) Science
B) Literature
C) Journalism
D) Game

Answer: (A) Science

9. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is correct?
I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable.
II) The word “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
III) The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

Choose the correct statements:
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III

Answer: (B) I and III only

10. Match the following newspapers with their slogans or taglines:

Newspaper	Slogan
i) The Times of India	1) “The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir”
ii) Hindustan Times	2) “Journalism of Courage”
iii) The Indian Express	3) “First Voice. Last Word”
iv) State Times Newspaper	4) “Let Truth Prevail”

 

Choose the correct answer:
A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
B) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
C) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
D) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

Answer: (D) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

11. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(i) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(ii) Parliament is Supreme.
(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(iv) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C) (ii) and (iii)
D) (iii) only

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii)

12. Match the following Indian languages with their respective states where they are predominantly spoken:

Language	State
i) Konkani	1 Jammu and Kashmir
ii) Dogri	2 Meghalaya
iii) Khasi	3 Bihar
iv) Maithili	4 Goa

Choose the correct answer:
A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
B) I-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
C) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4

Answer: (B) I-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3

13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
II. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
IV. He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A) I and IV
B) II, III and IV
C) III and IV
D) IV only

Answer:(D) IV only

14. In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?
A) Luna 25
B) Chang’e-6
C) Artemis I
D) Vikram Lander

Answer:(B) Change-6

15. In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir?
A) 2005
B) 2019
C) 2009
D) 202

Answer: (C) 2009

16. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all matters except defense, foreign affairs, finance, and communications.

Which statement is are correct?
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

17. Who probably invented the dogri script?
A) Puran Karan
B) Shakti Karan
C) Agni Garbha
D) Shiv Prakash

Answer: (B) Shakti Karan

18. Consider following statements about the climate of Jammu
Statement: I   Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu.
Statement: II   Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate.

Which of the given statement is /are correct?
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) None of these

Answer:(A) Only I

19. Match the following

List-I	List-II
i) Established first legislature in Jammu and Kashmir	1) Ghulam Rasool Renzoo
ii) First speaker of Jammu and Kashmir legislative assembly	2 Hari Singh
iii) First chairman of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative council	3 Shiv Narayan Fotedar

Choose the correct option:
A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3
B) i-2, ii-1, iii-3
C) i-3, ii-1, iii-2
D) i-2, ii-3, iii-1

Answer:(B) i-2, ii-1, iii-3

20. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India?
A) Manoj Pandey
B) Neeraj Ahuja
C) V.K. Sharma
D) Siddhartha Mohanty

Answer: (D) Siddhartha Mohanty

Knowledge of Computers (10 Questions)

21. Read the following two statements:
Statement – I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
Statement – II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?
A) Both I and II
B) Neither I nor II
C) II Only
D) I Only

Answer: (B) Neither I nor II)

22. HTML is used to create
A) machine language program
B) high level program
C) web page
D) web server

Answer: (C) Web Page

23. Each character on the keyboard of a computer has an ASCII value which stands for
A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

Answer: (B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

24. Microsoft Windows is an example of which type of operating system?
A) Multitasking Operating System
B) Realtime Operating System
C) Embedded Operating System
D) Multiuser Operating System

Answer: (A) Multitasking Operating System

25. Which search engine is owned by Microsoft?
A) Google
B) Yahoo
C) Bing
D) DuckDuckGo

Answer: (C) Bing

26. Which protocol is used to send emails?
A) HTTP
B) SMTP
C) FTP
D) HTTPS

Ans: (B) SMTP

27. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer’s boot process.
Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.
Which statement is correct?
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Answer: (C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

28. Match the following operating systems with their examples:

List-I	List-II
i. Batch Operating System	1 Unix
ii. Time-Sharing Operating System	2 Windows Server
iii. Distributed Operating System	3 IBM
iv Network Operating System	4 Google Android OS

Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
B) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
C) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
D) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1

Answer: (B) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

29. Match the following:

List-I	List-II
i. Trackball	1 Used for drawing
ii. Graphics Tablet	2 Control the movement of objects in computer games
iii. Printer	3 Control the movement of the cursor on a monitor
iv Joystick	4 Convert digital data into a physical form

Choose the correct option:
A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
C) i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1
D) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3

Answer: (A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

30. Which of the following statements about computer memory are correct?
I. Cache memory is faster than RAM.
II. SSDs are slower than HDDs.
III. Virtual memory extends RAM using storage space.
IV. DRAM is a type of non-volatile memory.

Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A) I and III only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, and III only
D) I, III, and IV only

Answer: (A) I and III only

31. Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom: A skeleton in the cupboard.
A) A popular fact which is not hidden
B) A popular fact to be kept secret
C) An embarrassing fact not to be kept secret
D) An embarrassing fact to be kept secret

Answer: (D) An embarrassing fact to be kept secret

32. Choose the correct meaning of the phrase “Kick the bucket”:
A) To start a new project
B) To delay a decision
C) To pass away
D) To kick a bucket

Answer: (C) To Pass Away

33. Select the pair that has the same relationship as DIVA : OPERA:
A) Conductor : Bus
B) Producer : Theatre
C) Thespian : Play
D) Director : Drama

Answer: (C) Thespian: Play

34. Fill in the blank:
………did you put my keys?
A) Wear
B) Ware
C) Where
D) Were

Answer: (C) Where

35. We bought some eggs from the market, but unfortunately ………of them were fresh.
A) No one
B) Much
C) None
D) Many

Answer: (C) None

36. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of PREDICT:
A) Prevent
B) Foretell
C) Discover
D) Decide

Answer (B) Foretell

37. Fill the blank with the most suitable preposition:
It was very generous ……you to offer to help me.
A) Of
B) For
C) From
D) About

Answer: (A) Of

38. Find the antonym of the word AMPLE:
A) Enough
B) Meagre
C) Sufficient
D) Scarce

Answer (B) Meagre

39. Complete the sentence:
I go to Srinagar by ……Vande Bharat Express.
A) A
B) An
C) Some
D) The

Answer: (D) The

40. Identify the type of clause:
“I know that she is coming to the party.”
A) Adjective clause
B) Adverb clause
C) Noun clause
D) Relative clause

Answer: (C) Noun Clause

41. Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?
A) Comma (,)
B) Apostrophe (‘)
C) Semicolon (;)
D) Colon (:)

Answer: (B) Apostrophe (‘)

42. What are homonyms?
A) Words that sound the same but have different meanings
B) Words that have multiple meanings
C) Words that are spelled the same but have different meanings
D) Both A and C

Answer: (D) Both A and C

43. Match the idioms in Column A with their correct meanings in Column B:

Column A (Idioms)	Column B (Meanings)
1.In a difficult situation	i. Kick off
2. Go to bed	ii. Hit the sack
3. Start a conversation	iii. Under the weather
4. Feeling Unwell	iv. Once in a Blue moon
5. Very Rarely	v. Between a rock and a hard place

Choose the correct option:
A) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i
B) 1-iv, 2-v, 3-i, 4-iii, 5-ii
C) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v
D) 1-v, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii, 5-iv

Answer: (A) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i

44. Match the words in Column A with their correct antonyms in Column B:

Column A (Words)	Column B (Antonyms)
1.Generous	i. Ugly
2. Beautiful	ii. Weak
3. Strong	iii. Stingy
4. Victory	iv. Defeat
5. Ancient	v. Modern

Choose the correct option:
A) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v
B) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i, 5-v
C) 1-v, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii, 5-i
D) 1-ii, 2-v, 3-iv, 4-i, 5-iii

Answer: (A) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v

45. Complete the sentence:
The thief will have run away before the police ……..
A) comes
B) had come
C) came
D) none

Answer: (A) comes

46. If the price of a product increases by 25%25%, by what percentage must a consumer reduce consumption to maintain the same expenditure?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 33.33%

Answer: (A) 20%

47. Complete the series:
22, 33, 46, 61, 78, ?
A) 86
B) 97
C) 90
D) 79

Answer: (B) 97

48. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
Statement II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
A) S I Only
B) S II Only
C) Both S I and S II
D) Neither S I nor S II

Answer: (B) S II Only

49. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R):
(Assertion): No man is perfect.
(Reason): Some men are not perfect.
Choose the correct code:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).

50. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

51. P is the father of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?
A) Grandfather
B) Father-in-law
C) Brother
D) Uncle

Answer: (A) Grandfather

52. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, mark the right choice for the second set:
AST : BRU :: NQV : ?
A) ORW
B) MPU
C) MRW
D) OPW

Answer: (A) ORW

53. Match the mathematical concepts with their corresponding formulas or properties:

A. Concepts	B. Formulas/Properties
1. Compound Interest	i.Speed×Time÷Distance
2.Trigonometry	ii. (P×R×T)/100
3.Speed, Distance and Time	iii. A=P(1+R/100)n
4. Profit and Loss	iv. Sin2 + Cos2 =1
5.Simple Intrest	v. (Selling Price−Cost Price) / Cost Price ×100

Choose the correct option:
A) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii, 5-v
C) 1-v, 2-iii, 3-iii, 4-i, 5-iv
D) 1-iv, 2-v, 3-iii, 4-ii, 5-i

Answer: (A) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii

54. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): If a person moves 10 km north, then 5 km east, the total distance travelled is 15 km.
Reason (R): The shortest distance between the starting and ending point is given by the Pythagorean theorem.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer: (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

55. Match the word with its coded form:

Words	Coded Forms
i) CAT	1. DCNN
ii) DOG	2. ECV
iii) APPLE	3. FQL
iv) BALL	4. CRRNG

Choose the correct option:
A) i → 1, ii → 2, iii → 3, iv → 4
B) i → 2, ii → 3, iii → 4, iv → 1
C) i → 3, ii → 4, iii → 2, iv → 1
D) i → 4, ii → 3, iii → 1, iv → 2

Answer: (B) i → 2, ii → 3, iii → 4, iv → 1

56. Consider the following statements:
I. A 10% increase in a number followed by a 10% decrease in the result returns the original number.
II. 50% of 200 is 100.
III. If a number is increased by 20%, then decreased by 20%, the final result is less than the original number.
IV. 200% increase means tripling the number.

Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A) Only I and II
B) Only II and III
C) Only III and IV
D) Only II, III, and IV

Answer: (D) Only II, III, and IV

57. Two goods trains, each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one.
A) 12 sec
B) 24 sec
C) 48 sec
D) 60 sec

Answer (B) 24 sec

58. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.

Assumptions:
I. At that age, the child reaches an appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

Choose the correct statements:
A) Only assumption I is implicit
B) Only assumption II is implicit
C) Neither I nor II is implicit
D) Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A) Only assumption I is implicit

59. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

A) 12
B) 18
C) 22
D) 26

Answer: (B) 18

60. Identify the Figure that completes the Pattern

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer: (C) 3

61. The function of kinetodesmata in ciliate protozoans is to:
A) Store food particles
B) Coordinate ciliary movement
C) Act as a sensory organ
D) Help in binary fission

Answer: (B) Coordinate ciliary movement

62. Match List – I (Porifera Class) with List – II (Characteristic Features) and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Class of Porifera)	List – II (Characteristic Feature)
1. Calcarea	i. Siliceous spicules, deep-sea forms
2. Hexactinellida	ii. Spongin fibers, commercial sponges
3. Demospongiae	iii. Calcium carbonate spicules
4. Sclerospongiae	iv. Both siliceous spicules & spongin fibers

Choose the correct option:
A) 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 – iv
B) 1 – ii, 2 – iv, 3 – iii, 4 – i
C) 1 – iv, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iii
D) 1 – i, 2 – iii, 3 – iv, 4 – ii

Answer (A) 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 – iv

63. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Childarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions.
Reason (R): Childarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutrient transport.
Choose the Correct Statements:
A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.

64. The definitive host for Taenia solium is:
A) Pig
B) Human
C) Cow
D) Dog

Answer: (B) Human

65. The flame cells present in Playhelminthes are specialized for:
A) Digestion
B) Respiration
C) Osmoregulation and excretion
D) Locomotion

Answer: (C) Osmoregulation and excretion

66. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Sponges have a cellular level of organization, with water entering the body through ostia and exiting through the osculum.
Statement II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion.
Choose the Correct Statements:
A) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
B) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
C) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
D) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

Answer: (C) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

67. The figure shows cross-section of the body of an animal. This animal:

I: lacks a coelom
II: is triploblastic
III: is expected to have bilateral symmetry
IV: is expected to be dorso-ventrally flattened

Choose the correct option:
A) Only I, II and III are correct
B) Only I, III and IV are correct
C) Only II, III and IV are correct
D) I, II, III and IV are correct

Answer: (D) I, II, III and IV are correct

8. Match List – I (Protozoan Group) with List – II (Example) and choose the correct answer.

List – I (Group)	List – II (Example)
1. Amoeboid protozoans	i. Amoeba proteus
2. Ciliates	ii.Paramecium caudatum
3. Flagellates	iii. Euglena viridis
4. Sporozoans	iv. Plasmodium falciparum
5. Dinoflagellates	v.Gonyaulax
6. Slime molds	vi.Physarum polycephalum

Choose the correct option:
A) 1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv, 5 – v, 6 – vi
B) 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – i, 4 – iv, 5 – v, 6 – vi
C) 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – iv, 4 – i, 5 – v, 6 – vi
D) 1 – iv, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 – iii, 5 – v, 6 – vi

Answer: (A) 1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv, 5 – v, 6 – vi

69. Name the cells specialised for excretion and osmoregulation in Ascaris:
A) Flame cells
B) Renette Cells
C) Nephridial cells
D) Malpighian cells

Answer: (B) Renette Cells

70. The members of Kingdom Monera and Kingdom Protista in Whittaker’s five kingdom classification resemble each other in:
A) Cell type
B) Body organization
C) Nature of cell wall
D) Nuclear membrane

Answer: (A) Cell Type

71. Match the Molluscan Classes with their Examples:
Class
i. Gastropoda
ii. Bivalvia
iii. Cephalopoda
iv. Polyplacophora

Example

1. Octopus
2. Chiton
3. Snail
4. Oyster

Choose the correct option:
A) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
B) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
C) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
D) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3

Answer: (A) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2

72. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Cephalochordates retain their notochord throughout life.
Statement II: They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal slits.

Choose the Correct Statements:
A) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
B) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
C) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
D) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

Answer: (A) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

73. Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions:
Feature
i. Tube feet
ii. Madreportie
iii. Pedicellariae
iv. Radial canal

Function

1. Regulates water entry
2. Locomotion and feeding
3. Defense and cleaning
4. Distributes water

Choose the correct option:
A) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
B) i-1, ii-4, iii-2, iv-3
C) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
D) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2

Answer: (A) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4

74. Which enzyme is found in the resorptive cells of digestive glands of Pila?
A) Lipase
B) Protease
C) Cellulase
D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Protease

75. Johnston’s organ is found in:
A) Legs of Spider
B) Head of Cockroach
C) Antennae of Mosquitoes
D) Abdomen of houseflies

Answer: (C) Antennae of Mosquitoes

76. How many red colour eye spots are present in sea star?
A) 1 pair
B) 2 pairs
C) 3 pairs
D) 5 pairs

Answer: (D) 5 pairs

77. The membrane at the side that can connect the tergum and sternum is known as:
A) Mesentery
B) Epithelium
C) Pleuron
D) Chitin

Answer: (C) Pleuron

78. Complete metamorphosis occurs in:
A) Silverfish
B) Locust
C) Bedbug
D) Mosquito

Answer: (D) Mosquito

79. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism.
Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot.
Choose the Correct Statements:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

80. Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates?
I. It is involved in filter feeding.
II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles.
III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates.
IV. It is present only in the larval stage.
Options:
A) I and II
B) I, II, and III
C) II and IV
D) All of the above

Answer: (B) I, II, and III

81. Indian bull Frog is:
A) Rana tigrina
B) Rana obstreticus
C) Bufo melesticaus
D) Hyla arbare

Answer: (A) Rana tigrina

82. Match the fish orders with their representative examples:

Orders	Examples
i. Chondrichthyes	1.Labeo (Rohu)
ii. Perciformes	2.Scoliodon (Dogfish)
iii. Cypriniformes	3.Catla
iv. Siluriformes	4.Clarias (Catfish)

Choose the correct option:
A) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
C) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
D) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

Answer: (B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4

83. Which of the following is a poisonous snake?
A) Python
B) Rattlesnake
C) Boa constrictor
D) Garter snake

Answer: (B) Rattlesnake

84. Match the following orders of birds with their examples:

Orders	Examples
i. Passeriformes	1.Pigeon
Pigeonii.Accipitriformes	2.Sparrow
iii. Columbiformes	3.Crow
iv. Falconiformes	4.Eagle.

Choose correct option:
A) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
B) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
C) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
D) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4

Answer: (D) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4

85. Feather of the birds are waterproof due to the oil secretion of:
A) Mucus glands
B) Uropygial glands
C) Sudorific glands
D) Green glands

Answer: (B) Uropygial glands

86. Which one is not correct about Metatheria?
A) Testes are extra abdominal
B) Scrotum in front of penis
C) Placenta is well developed
D) Corpus callosum is small or absent

Answer: (C) Placenta is well developed

87. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater.
Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration.
Which statement is correct?
A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

88. Which of the following statements about parental care in amphibians is/are correct?
I. In some amphibians, males guard the eggs and provide protection until they hatch.
II. Certain amphibians, like the Darwin’s frog, carry their tadpoles in the vocal sac after hatching.
III. Some amphibians, such as frogs, do not provide any form of parental care, leaving the eggs to develop on their own.
IV. Male salamanders perform courtship dances to attract females and assist with egg-laying but do not provide any care afterward.
Choose The Correct Statement:
A) Statements I, II, and III are correct.
B) Statements I, II, and IV are correct.
C) Only statements I and II are correct.
D) Only statements II and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only statements I and II are correct.

89. Which of the following is considered an example of adaptive radiation in mammals following the extinction of the dinosaurs?
I) The evolution of primates from early mammalian ancestors.
II) The diversification of ungulates (hooved mammals) to fill various ecological niches.
III) The development of marine mammals like whales and dolphins from land-dwelling ancestors.
IV) The evolution of bats from primitive insectivorous mammals to specialized aerial creatures.

Choose The Correct Statement:
A) I and III are correct.
B) II and IV are correct.
C) I, III, and IV are correct.
D) II, III, and IV are correct.

Answer: (D) II, III, and IV are correct.

90. Which of the following reptile orders includes lizards and snakes?
A) Crocodilia
B) Squamata
C) Testudines
D) Chelonia

Answer: (B) Squamata

91. Which of the following hormone helps in secretion of HCl from stomach?
A) Renin
B) Gastrin
C) Secretin
D) Pepsin

Answer: (B) Gastrin

92. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is ______:
A) 159 mm Hg
B) 90 mm Hg
C) 104 mm Hg
D) 45 mm Hg

Answer: (C) 104 mm Hg

93. Which option indicates correct chronology of the changes occurring during transmission of nerve impulse?
A) Nerve fibre – depolarization – action potential – repolarization – activation of Na+ and K+ pump
B) Nerve fibre – depolarization – action potential – activation of Na+ and K+ pump – repolarization
C) Nerve fiber – depolarization – repolarization – action potential – activation of Na+ and K+ pump
D) Nerve fiber – Activation of Na+ and K+ pump – depolarization – repolarization

Answer: (A) Nerve fibre – depolarization – action potential – repolarization – activation of Na+ and K+ pump

94. A high respiratory quotient indicates:
A) Absence of respiration
B) Aerobic respiration
C) Anaerobic respiration
D) Inhibition of respiration

Answer: (B) Aerobic respiration

95. If loop of Henle were absent from an individual’s nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?
A) The urine will be more dilute
B) The urine will be more concentrated
C) There will be no urine formation
D) There will hardly be any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed

Answer: (A) The urine will be more dilute

96. Match Brain Regions with Their Function Across Different Organisms:

Brain Region	Function
i. Cerebrum	1.Coordination of voluntary movement
ii. Cerebellum	2.Memory, intelligence, and thinking
iii. Medulla oblongata	3.Reflex actions, heartbeat, and breathing
iv. Hypothalamus	4.Regulation of body temperature and hunger

Choose The Correct Option:
A) i→2, ii→1, iii→3, iv→4
B) i→1, ii→2, iii→3, iv→4
C) i→3, ii→2, iii→1, iv→4
D) i→2, ii→3, iii→4, iv→1

Answer: (A) i→2, ii→1, iii→3, iv→4

97. Match the Photoreceptor Cells with Their Function:

Photoreceptor	Function
i. Rods	1. Color vision under bright light
ii. Cones	2.Black and white vision in dim light
iii. Fovea	3. Area with the highest concentration of cones for sharp vision
iv. Optic Nerve	4. Transmits visual signals to the brain

Choose The Correct Option:
A) i→4, ii→2, iii→1, iv→3
B) i→1, ii→3, iii→4, iv→2
C) i→2, ii→1, iii→3, iv→4
D) i→3, ii→4, iii→2, iv→1

Answer: (C) i→2, ii→1, iii→3, iv→4

98. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Marine fishes excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as ammonia.
Reason (R): Marine fishes are hyperosmotic to their environment, leading to high water retention.
Which statement is correct?
A) Both A and R are correct, and R explains A.
B) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.
C) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Answer: (C) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

99. Consider following statements. Cholecystokinin, one of the hormone of digestive tract:
I) stimulates release of trypsin
II) inhibits release of pepsin
III) stimulates release of lipase
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I, II, and III
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I and III

Answer: (D) I and III

100. Choose the Correct Statements About Resting Membrane Potential:
I. The resting membrane potential is typically around -70 mV.
II. The sodium-potassium pump actively maintains this potential.
III. At rest, the membrane is more permeable to Na+ than K+.
IV. Resting potential is maintained by passive ion diffusion and active transport.
Choose The Correct Option:
A) Only I and II
B) Only II, III, and IV
C) Only I, II, and IV
D) All of the above

Answer: (C) Only I, II, and IV

101. Match the following:

Column-A	Column-B
i. Echippus	1.Ancestor with three toes, lived in forests
ii. Mesohippus	2.The modern horse genus
iii. Merychippus	3.Dawn horse- first ancestor of horses
iv. Equus	4.First to exhibit a grazing diet, started evolving on plains

Choose the correct option:
A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
C) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
D) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2

Answer: (A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

102. Sibling species exhibit:
I. sympatric distribution
II. morphological similarity
III. genetic identity
IV. reproductive isolation

Choose the correct options:
A) Only III is correct
B) I and II are correct
C) II, III, and IV are correct
D) I, II, and IV are correct

Answer: (D) I, II, and IV are correct

103. Choose the correct sequence of evolutionary events in one form of allopatric specification:
I. Geographical isolation
II. Ecological isolation
III. Increased pre-mating reproductive isolation
IV. Increased genetic divergence
V. Selection completed

Choose the correct option:
A) III, IV, II, V
B) I, IV, II, V
C) III, II, IV, V
D) I, II, III, V

Answer: (D) I, II, III, V

104. Some of the oldest known fossil cells appear as parts of stromatolites, which are formed today from sediments and:
A) marine invertebrates
B) photosynthetic prokaryotes
C) amoeba
D) heterotrophic prokaryotes

Answer: (B) photosynthetic prokaryotes

105. The unit of evolution is the:
A) individual
B) social groups
C) population
D) species

Answer: (C) population

106. The fossil of Java-Man was found in 1891 on the banks of the Solo River in Eastern Java by:
A) Davidson Black
B) Dubois
C) Leakey
D) Robert Broom

Answer: (D) Robert Broom

107. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Stabilizing selection favors individuals with extreme phenotypes in a population.
Reason (R): Stabilizing selection reduces genetic diversity by selecting for the average phenotype.

Which statement is correct?
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
D) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

Answer: (C) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

109. Which of the following is the most famous example of industrial melanism?
A) Peppered moth (Biston betularia)
B) Darwin’s finches
C) Galápagos tortoises
D) Turtles

Answer: (D) Turtles

110. Choose the correct statement(s):
I. Genetic variation can only arise from sexual reproduction.
II. Organic variation is always beneficial for the survival of a species.
III. Environmental factors have no effect on organic variation.
IV. Some isolating mechanisms are pre-zygotic, meaning they occur before fertilization.

Choose the correct statement(s):
A) I and II are correct
B) I, II, III are correct
C) Only IV is correct
D) All are correct

Ans: (A) I and II are correct

111. What is the role of regulatory T cells in the immune system?
A) To activate B cells
B) To suppress immune responses
C) To produce antibodies
D) To enhance phagocytosis

Answer: (B) To suppress immune responses

112. Match the Cytokines with Their Functions:

Column -A	Column -B
i. IL-1	1. Stimulates the growth of T-cells, plays a key role in adaptive immunity
ii. IL-2	2. Activates macrophages, enhances antigen presentation, and regulates immune responses
iii. IFN-γ	3. Plays a significant role in inflammation, immune system regulation, and apoptosis
iv. TNF-α	4. Promotes inflammation, fever, and the activation of T-cells

Choose the correct option:
A) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
B) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
C) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
D) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4

Answer: (A) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3

113. Which of the following Co-receptors recognizes th beta-2 microglobin subunit of Class I MHCs?

A) CD24
B) CD4
C) CD8
D) CD16

Answer: (C) CD8

114. Which is the correct order of activities showcased by endogenous antigens?
i) Peptide binding to MHC Class I
ii) Transport to Endoplasmic Reticulum
iii) Generation of Peptide from proteolysis

Choose the correct options:
A) i–ii–iii
B) iii–ii–i
C) ii–iii–i
D) i–iii–ii

Answer: (B) iii–ii–i

115. Select the correct statements regarding the receptors of the innate immune system:
I. They are included in the Toll family of receptors.
II. They include MHC complexes.
III. They recognize molecular patterns.
IV. They include scavenger receptors.

Choose the correct options:
A) I, III, and IV
B) I and II
C) III and IV
D) II and IV

Answer: (A) I, III, and IV

116. In humans, what are MHCs called?
A) HHC
B) HLA
C) HAT
D) HPFC

Answer: (B) HLA

117. B lymphocytes are involved in the human immune response to a bacterial infection. Which of the following processes would TYPICALLY be carried out by these lymphocytes in response to the infection?
I. Cell division by mitosis
II. Transcription producing mRNA
III. Engulfing and digesting bacteria

Options:
A) I and II only
B) III only
C) I and III only
D) I only

Answer: (A) I and II only

118. Match the following:

Column -A (Antibody Type)	Column -B (Found in)
i. IgA	1. Blood and extracellular fluid
ii. IgG	2. Surface of immature B cells
iii. IgD	3.Basophils and mastocytes
iv. IgE	4. Mucosal secretions like saliva, tears, and breast milk

Choose the correct matching option:
A) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
B) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
C) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3

Answer: (A) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3

119. A complement component that is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils is:
A) C3
B) C3b
C) C5a
D) C5b

Answer: (C) C5a

120. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): An antibody is represented as H₂L₂.
Reason (R): An antibody has two heavy chains and two light chains.

Choose the correct options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).