The J&K High Court Junior Assistant Examination 2026 was successfully conducted on 19th July 2026 across multiple examination centres in the Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory. Thousands of candidates appeared for this highly competitive recruitment examination to secure the post of Junior Assistant in the High Court.
To help aspirants, we have shared the complete question paper along with a detailed section-wise analysis, expected difficulty level, and the possible cut-off marks based on the overall standard of the paper. This analysis will help candidates estimate their performance and prepare better for the next stages of the recruitment process.
On this page, we have shared the complete J&K High Court Junior Assistant Question Paper 2026 along with a detailed section-wise analysis, expected cut-off marks, and important observations. Candidates preparing for future High Court recruitments can also compare this paper with the J&K High Court Jr. Assistant Question Paper 2025 to understand how the examination pattern and difficulty level have evolved over the years.
📊 J&K High Court Jr. Assistant 2026 Section-wise Analysis
The examination was balanced across all four sections. English and Computer Awareness were comparatively easier, whereas General Knowledge required a good understanding of current affairs, constitutional topics and Jammu & Kashmir-specific information.
| Section | Questions | Difficulty | Analysis |
|---|---|---|---|
| General English | 30 | 🟢 Easy – Moderate | Questions were mainly based on Grammar, Articles, Modals, Passive Voice, Reported Speech, Idioms, Synonyms, Antonyms and Vocabulary. Candidates with strong basics found this section scoring. |
| General Knowledge | 25 | 🟠 Moderate | Included questions from Indian Constitution, History, Environment, Current Affairs, International Affairs and Jammu & Kashmir General Knowledge. This section played a key role in overall performance. |
| Computer Fundamentals | 15 | 🟢 Easy – Moderate | Focused on Operating Systems, Memory, Cache, Malware, Networking, Cloud Computing, Unicode and basic computer concepts. Mostly conceptual questions were asked. |
| Job Related Awareness | 10 | 🟢 Easy | Questions were based on official correspondence, office ethics, file movement, confidentiality, court terminology and duties of a Junior Assistant. |
- English was the easiest section of the paper.
- General Knowledge was the deciding section for high scores.
- Computer Awareness focused on concepts rather than technical depth.
- Job Related Awareness questions were practical and directly related to the Junior Assistant profile.
General English (30 Questions)
Q1. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
The team decided to pull out all the stops for their upcoming presentation.
A) Give up easily and without thinking much
B) Keep things simple and straightforward
C) Wait patiently for a more favourable time
D) Do everything to make something successful
Correct Answer: D) Do everything to make something successful
Q2. Fill in the blanks with Correct Article.
I need to Buy ______ Milk.
A) the
B) an
C) a
D) no article
Correct Answer: D) no article
Q3. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Did you hear that noise?
A) Was that noise heard by you?
B) Wasn’t that noise heard by you?
C) Has that noise been heard by you?
D) Is that noise heard by you?
Correct Answer: A) Was that noise heard by you?
Q4. Fill in the blanks with Correct Article.
“He is captain of ______ team.”
A) the
B) an
C) a
D) no article
Correct Answer: A) the
Q5. Fill in the Blanks with Correct Modals.
______ you show me the road to the market?
A) might
B) could
C) may
D) shall
Correct Answer: B) could
Q6. Correct the underlined word.
When we are came out of the restaurant it was half past eleven.
A) When we had come out
B) After we came out of the restaurant
C) When we have come out of the restaurant
D) No improvement
Correct Answer: B) After we came out of the restaurant
Q7. Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.
The trainer tried to guage the learners’ understanding of the subject by asking several new questions.
A) Gauge
B) Gaage
C) Gaugg
D) Gaaug
Correct Answer: A) Gauge
Q8. Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom.
Person A: I am so nervous. I don’t think I should make the speech tomorrow.
Person B: No. You are just getting ______. You have prepared for this.
A) cold feet
B) hot feet
C) cold foot
D) cold hand
Correct Answer: A) cold feet
Q9. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A sudden and violent change or upheaval.
A) Equanimity
B) Turbulence
C) Tranquility
D) Serenity
Correct Answer: B) Turbulence
Q10. Replace the underlined word with its synonym to make the sentence more meaningful.
Narcotic drug addiction is in vogue these days, as it is the most popular form of substance abuse.
A) demand
B) obscurity
C) Standard
D) Fashion
Correct Answer: D) Fashion
Q11. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word – Altruistic
A) Phenomenal
B) Philanthropic
C) Phonotypical
D) Phantasmal
Correct Answer: B) Philanthropic
Q12. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the segment in the given sentence.
If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
Edward II is tragic than some other plays by the dramatist.
A) as least tragic as
B) No substitution required
C) the most tragic
D) less tragic than
Correct Answer: D) less tragic than
Q13. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
Raghav said to Meera, “Are you upset with me?”
A) Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with her.
B) Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him.
C) Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with me.
D) Raghav asked Meera why she was upset with him.
Correct Answer: B) Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him.
Q14. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
He lived close to / the train station. / yet travelled by bus.
A) yet travelled by bus
B) No error
C) He lived close to
D) the train station
Correct Answer: A) yet travelled by bus
Q15. Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.
The youth involved in the accident escaped by the skin of his teeth.
A) Barely managed to escape
B) Very arrogant
C) Always taking calculated decisions
D) Deficiency of funds
Correct Answer: A) Barely managed to escape
Q16. If I had played well, I would have won the match.
A) I played well
B) I play well
C) I am playing will
D) No improvement
Correct Answer: D) No improvement
Q17. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Nine tenths/of the pillar/have rotted away./No error.
A) Nine tenths
B) of the pillar
C) have rotted away.
D) No error.
Correct Answer: C) have rotted away.
Q18. Which of the following possessives is correctly punctuated?
A) The library lost all its books.
B) That’s anyones’ guess.
C) That car is not your’s.
D) That car is not their’s
Correct Answer: A) The library lost all its books.
Q19. Which of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?
A) The student wrote that “Each of the experiments was successful.”
B) The student wrote “Each of the experiments was successful.”
C) The student wrote that each of the experiments was successful.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer: B) The student wrote “Each of the experiments was successful.”
Q20. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word -Confiscate
A) Titivate
B) Restock
C) Destroy
D) Seize
Correct Answer: D) Seize
Q21. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.
One part of the philosophy of life’s meaning consists of the systematic attempt to identify what people have in mind when they think about the topic.
A) attempt
B) philosophy
C) think
D) Systemetic
Correct Answer: D) Systemetic
Q22. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who admires himself or herself too much, especially their appearance.
A) Narcissist
B) Egoist
C) Selfish
D) Dictator
Correct Answer: A) Narcissist
Q23. Fill in the Blanks with Correct Modals
Sheldon ______ to study more if he wants to pass the test.
A) will
B) may
C) Ought
D) shall
Correct Answer: C) Ought
Q24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The friends decided to play cards to ______ time while waiting for the cab.
A) ignore
B) kill
C) move
D) Ease
Correct Answer: B) kill
Q25. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.
The new Principal of the school is stern, yet he understands the needs of his subordinates.
A) Flippant
B) Lenient
C) Desolate
D) Noxious
Correct Answer: B) Lenient
Q26. Choose the sentence that requires an indefinite article before a noun.
A) “He wants to be astronaut.”
B) “She is going to airport.”
C) “They visited temple.”
D) “I saw an elephant at zoo.”
Correct Answer: D) “I saw an elephant at zoo.”
Q27. Fill in the Blanks with Correct Modals
“Raj hasn’t studied well. He ______ fail his exam.”
A) can
B) may
C) could
D) shall
Correct Answer: B) may
Q28. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend ______ our own efforts for success.
A) Upon
B) For
C) In
D) At
Correct Answer: A) Upon
Q29. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Everyone was surprised at his speech.
A) His speech surprise everyone.
B) His speech was surprising to everyone.
C) His speech is surprising everyone.
D) His speech surprised everyone.
Correct Answer: B) His speech was surprising to everyone.
Q30. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.
He walked leisurely towards the entrance.
A) reassuringly
B) hastily
C) with a kickstart
D) without haste
Correct Answer: D) without haste
General Knowledge (25 Questions)
Q31. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Right to Constitutional Remedies is guaranteed under Article 32.
Statement 2: It can be suspended during Emergency in all cases.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: A) 1 only
Q32. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Inflation refers to sustained rise in general price level.
Statement 2: Deflation refers to increase in money supply.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: A) 1 only
Q33. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere.
Statement 2: It protects Earth from UV radiation.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: C) Both
Q34. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757.
Statement 2: It was fought between British and French.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: A) 1 only
Q35. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Kyoto Protocol deals with climate change.
Statement 2: it was adopted under UNFCCC.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: C) Both
Q36. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Railway Bridge No. 17 over the Ravi River was damaged due to floods in 2025.
Statement 2: Its restoration helped resume rail services between Jammu and the rest of India.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: C) Both
Q37. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: The Darbar Move is a biannual shifting of offices between Jammu and Srinagar.
Statement 2: It was permanently discontinued after 2021.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: C) Both
Q38. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: In 2025, protests in Pakistan-administered Kashmir involved demands related to subsidies and governance reforms.
Statement 2: These protests were fully peaceful with no violence reported.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: A) 1 only
Q39. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: Winter Games in Kashmir were postponed in 2025 due to insufficient snowfall.
Statement 2: The region experienced abnormal weather conditions affecting snow availability.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: C) Both
Q40. Find the correct statement-
Statement 1: The Katra–Srinagar Vande Bharat train is part of USBRL.
Statement 2: It improves connectivity between Jammu and Kashmir regions.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: C) Both
Q41. From which year the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted?
A) 1956
B) 1965
C) 1935
D) 1947
Correct Answer: A) 1956
Q42. Which one is recognised as the state flower of Jammu and Kashmir
A) Lotus
B) Daisy
C) Rose
D) Lily
Correct Answer: D) Lily
Q43. Which river is known as the lifeline of Kashmir?
A) Ravi
B) Jhelum
C) Chenab
D) Indus
Correct Answer: B) Jhelum
Q44. Which historical text is the primary source for the early history of Kashmir?
A) Nilamata Purana
B) Rajatarangini
C) Ain-i-Akbari
D) Baharistan-i-Shahi
Correct Answer: B) Rajatarangini
Q45. Which of the following is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir?
A) Snow Leopard
B) Brown Bear
C) Hangul
D) Musk Deer
Correct Answer: C) Hangul
Q46. Statement 1: G20 is a permanent organization.
Statement 2: India held G20 Presidency in 2023.
Which statement is correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
Correct Answer: B) 2 only
Q47. Who among the following named the Indus valley civilization as the ‘Harappan civilization’ after the name of the Indus site of Harappa?
A) Dr Sankhalia
B) Dr SRRao
C) Sir ME M Wheeler
D) Sir John Marshall
Correct Answer: D) Sir John Marshall
Q48. Which company designed the ICC Cricket World Cup Trophy?
A) Chappell & Co
B) Garrard & Co
C) Marylebone & Co
D) Adelaide & Co
Correct Answer: B) Garrard & Co
Q49. Which treaty in 1846 led to the formal establishment of the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir?
A) Treaty of Sugauli
B) Treaty of Lahore
C) Treaty of Amritsar
D) Treaty of Shimla
Correct Answer: C) Treaty of Amritsar
Q50. Which among the following was steel plant of India is sometimes called India’s First Swadeshi Steel Plant?
A) Bengal Iron Works Company
B) TISCO
C) IISCO
D) Bokaro Steel Plant
Correct Answer: B) TISCO
Q51. In which Indian state was the rare Kannada inscription documenting a humanitarian disaster discovered?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: D) Maharashtra
Q52. New Moore island disappeared in the sea after many years of its creation. This island was claimed by which of the following two neighbours?
A) India & Pakistan
B) India & Sri Lanka
C) India & Bangladesh
D) India & Myanmar
Correct Answer: C) India & Bangladesh
Q53. Which Indian Enterprise used the slogan – Improving the quality of Life?
A) Reliance
B) TATA
C) Birla
D) ITC
Correct Answer: B) TATA
Q54. What is the name of the empire that ruled the Middle East from 883 to 627 BC?
A) The Babylonian Empire
B) The Merovingian Empire
C) The Persian Empire
D) The Assyrian Empire
Correct Answer: D) The Assyrian Empire
Q55. The “Doctrine of Basic Structure” of the Indian Constitution was established in which landmark case?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) SR Bommai v. Union of India
Correct Answer: B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Basic Concepts of Computers (15 Questions)
Q56. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- Multiprocessing always requires multiple CPUs.
- Multitasking and multiprocessing are identical concepts.
- A single CPU can appear to run multiple tasks through time-sharing.
- Modern operating systems support multitasking.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: C) 3 and 4 only
Q57. Which of the following is the first neural network computer?
A) AN
B) AM
C) RFD
D) SNARC
Correct Answer: D) SNARC
Q58. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- An operating system is necessary to run application software.
- Some embedded systems can operate without a traditional operating system.
- BIOS is loaded into RAM during booting.
- BIOS is a type of application software.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Q59. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- Every cache miss results in data being fetched from RAM.
- Registers are generally faster than cache memory.
- Cache memory is used to reduce CPU waiting time.
- Cache memory is part of secondary storage.
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q60. Statements:
- A computer can process data and produce information.
- A computer can think and make decisions on its own like a human.
A) Only Statement 1 is true
B) Only Statement 2 is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false
Correct Answer: A) Only Statement 1 is true
Q61. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- A computer virus is a type of malware.
- Every malware is a virus.
- A worm can spread without attaching itself to another file.
- Antivirus software guarantees 100% protection.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
Q62. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- RAM is both readable and writable.
- ROM can never be modified.
- EEPROM is a form of ROM.
- EEPROM can be electrically erased.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q63. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- A file extension determines the actual contents of a file.
- Two files with different extensions may contain identical data.
- Changing a file extension does not necessarily change file content.
- The operating system often uses extensions to identify file types.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: C) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q64. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- Cloud computing means data is stored on remote servers.
- Cloud data ultimately resides on physical hardware.
- Cloud computing eliminates the need for data centers.
- Cloud services can be private, public, or hybrid.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q65. Which of the Following Statements are Correct?
- Unicode was developed to represent characters from multiple languages.
- ASCII is a subset of Unicode.
- Every Unicode character occupies exactly 16 bits.
- ASCII uses fewer characters than Unicode.
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All four
Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q66. Which of the following is not a type of computer code?
A) EDIC
B) ASCII
C) BCD
D) EBCDIC
Correct Answer: A) EDIC
Q67. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
A) User
B) Application Software
C) System Software
D) Utility Software
Correct Answer: C) System Software
Q68. Which of the following service allows a user to log in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
A) e-mail
B) UseNet
C) Telnet
D) FTP
Correct Answer: C) Telnet
Q69. Statements: 1. The keyboard is an input device. 2. MS Word is hardware.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
C) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
D) Both statements are false
Correct Answer: B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
Q70. Which of the following language does the computer understand?
A) Computer understands only C Language
B) Computer understands only Assembly Language
C) Computer understands only Binary Language
D) Computer understands only BASIC
Correct Answer: C) Computer understands only Binary Language
SECTION – D JOB RELATED AWARENESS
Q71. A court employee should avoid conflict of interest because it may:
A) Improve efficiency
B) Affect impartiality and public trust
C) Reduce workload
D) Increase transparency
Correct Answer: B) Affect impartiality and public trust
Q72. Which of the following is NOT a desirable trait for a court employee?
A) Accuracy
B) Confidentiality
C) Partiality
D) Integrity
Correct Answer: C) Partiality
Q73. When an official file is transferred between sections, the movement should be:
A) Verbal only
B) Properly recorded
C) Unnecessary to document
D) Left to memory
Correct Answer: B) Properly recorded
Q74. The phrase “official correspondence” refers to:
A) Personal letters
B) Communication made in the course of official duties
C) Social media posts
D) Private notes
Correct Answer: B) Communication made in the course of official duties
Q75. The doctrine of natural justice mainly promotes:
A) Administrative secrecy
B) Fairness in decision-making
C) Political neutrality
D) Judicial delays
Correct Answer: B) Fairness in decision-making
Q76. Which of the following best describes the core duty of a Junior Assistant in the High Court?
A) Prosecuting criminal cases in the courtroom
B) Preparing and maintaining case files and legal documents.
C) Passing final judgments on civil matters.
D) Representing clients as a defense attorney
Correct Answer: B) Preparing and maintaining case files and legal documents.
Q77. A Junior Assistant should verify a document before:
A) Destroying it
B) Processing or forwarding it
C) Ignoring it
D) Filing it without reading
Correct Answer: B) Processing or forwarding it
Q78. A “summons” is issued by the court to:
A) Punish a person
B) Require appearance or response in court
C) Record judgment
D) Collect fines automatically
Correct Answer: B) Require appearance or response in court
Q79. What is the primary function of an ‘Ahlimad’ in the context of court procedures?
A) Process Server
B) Legal Clerk
C) Expert Witness
D) Peon
Correct Answer: B) Legal Clerk
Q80. Who handles the financial matters under the directions of the Presiding Officer of a Sub-ordinate court?
A) Process Server
B) Stenographer
C) Nazir
D) Ahlimad
Correct Answer: C) Nazir
Overall Analysis
The J&K High Court Junior Assistant Question Paper 2026 can be rated as Easy to Moderate in terms of overall difficulty. The English and Computer sections were largely straightforward, allowing well-prepared candidates to save time for the General Knowledge portion, which contained a mix of constitutional, historical, current affairs and Jammu & Kashmir-specific questions.
Candidates who maintained both speed and accuracy could comfortably attempt 65–72 questions within the allotted time. Since the paper was not overly difficult, the competition is likely to be decided by accuracy, making even a few incorrect answers significant.
🎯 J&K High Court Jr. Assistant 2026 Expected Cut-off
Disclaimer: The following cut-off is an expert estimate prepared after analysing the question paper and candidates’ feedback. The official cut-off may vary depending upon vacancies, category-wise competition and overall performance.
| Category | Expected Cut-off (Out of 80) |
|---|---|
| Open Merit (OM) | 62–67 Marks |
| EWS | 60–64 Marks |
| RBA / OBC | 58–63 Marks |
| SC | 54–59 Marks |
| ST | 52–57 Marks |
Conclusion
The J&K High Court Junior Assistant Exam 2026 maintained a balanced and candidate-friendly pattern, testing both conceptual knowledge and practical understanding. Candidates with strong preparation in English, Computer Fundamentals, and Job Related Awareness were able to score well, while the General Knowledge section emerged as the deciding factor for securing a higher rank.
Candidates should now wait for the release of the official answer key on the J&K High Court website and calculate their probable scores. Those preparing for upcoming government recruitments should also explore the JKSSB SI (Finance) Recruitment 2026, another excellent opportunity for graduates seeking government jobs in Jammu & Kashmir.
