The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) successfully conducted the OMR-based written examination for the post of Inspector in the Forest Department today, 15th March 2026. The exam, held from 12:00 Noon to 2:00 PM, saw a massive turnout as thousands of aspirants across the UT appeared at various designated centers.
For many candidates, the JKSSB Inspector (forest) Question Paper is the most crucial document right now. Whether you want to calculate your expected score using the official answer key released this evening or you are a future aspirant looking to understand the latest trend of JKSSB exams, having access to the full question paper is essential.
JKSSB Forest Inspector Exam 2026: Highlights
| Exam Component | Details |
| Organization | Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) |
| Post Name | Inspector (Forest Department) |
| Exam Date | 15th March 2026 (Sunday) |
| Timing | 12:00 PM to 2:00 PM |
| Question Paper Status | Available Below |
| Answer Key Status | Released (Official) |
Studying recent papers is a proven strategy for success. For instance, many questions in today’s exam followed a similar pattern to the recently held JKSSB Wildlife Guard Question Paper, specifically in the General Science and Environment sections.
1. Match the following — Directive Principles with Constitutional Articles
| Directive Principles (List-I) | Constitutional Articles (List-II) |
|---|---|
| i. Organisation of village panchayats | a. Article 44 |
| ii. Uniform Civil Code for citizens | b. Article 40 |
| iii. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive | c. Article 51 |
| iv. Promotion of International peace | d. Article 50 |
Choose the correct match:
A i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
B i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
Correct Answer C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
2. The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-2A through which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
A 42ᵗʰ Amendment Act
B 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act
C 86ᵗʰ Amendment Act
D 97ᵗʰ Amendment Act
Correct Answer C 86ᵗʰ Amendment Act
3. Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements —
I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.
II. These Duties can always be enforced through Writ jurisdiction in the court of law.
III. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.
A I only
B II only
C I and II only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C I and II only
4. Which of the following statements are correct about Direct democracy and Indirect democracy?
I. In direct democracy, people themselves vote on every legislation.
II. Recall, Initiative and Plebiscite are the instruments of Direct democracy.
III. Gram sabhas in the villages are the classic example of the functioning of Direct democracy in India.
IV. Direct democracy is also known as Representative democracy, where people elect their representative leaders to make laws.
A I and III only
B II and III only
C I, III and IV only
D All of the above
Correct Answer B II and III only
5. Match the following Provisions with Legal/Constitutional Sources
| Provisions (List-I) | Legal / Constitutional Sources (List-II) |
|---|---|
| I. Conduct of elections of President and Vice President | a. Representation of the People Act, 1950 |
| II. Disqualifications for contesting elections | b. Representation of the People Act, 1951 |
| III. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 years | c. 61ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 |
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
6. Who has the final authority to issue symbols to the political parties and solve disputes between the factions of a party claiming the same symbol?
A Parliament of India
B Supreme Court of India
C Ministry of Law and Justice
D Election Commission of India
Correct Answer D Election Commission of India
7. Identify the INCORRECT statements about the Presidential Elections in India —
I. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the election of the President, but participate in the impeachment process.
II. Elected members of the State Legislative Councils also vote in the Election of the President, if the state has a bicameral legislature.
III. According to Article 55(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Presidential Election is conducted by secret ballot.
IV. The value of each MLA’s vote is the same across all states to ensure the principle of “One member, One vote”.
A II and III only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D II and IV only
Correct Answer D II and IV only
8. Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution —
I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule.
II. The languages — Bodo, Dogri and Maithili — were added in the Schedule by the 71ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act.
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer B II only
9. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Article 343 of the Indian Constitution designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
II. According to Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution, a special officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer C Both I and II
10. Consider the following statements about the United Nations and select the correct option.
I. All UN Members are part of the General Assembly.
II. States are admitted to membership by the decision of the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council.
III. Members have the voting rights proportional to their financial contributions only.
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer A I and II only
11. Which of the following statements about the solar system are correct?
I. The planet Venus is also known as ‘the Morning Star’.
II. The asteroid belt, a region of rocky debris, lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
III. The Kuiper belt, a region of icy bodies, lies between the orbits of Planets Saturn and Uranus.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer B I and II only
12. A ship is sailing from the International Date Line on Wednesday, from East to West (from America to Russia). What will happen to the day or date on the ship?
A Date will remain Wednesday (same day)
B Date will change to Tuesday (one day back)
C Date will change to Thursday (one day forward)
D Day remains the same, only the time changes
Correct Answer C Date will change to Thursday (one day forward)
13. On December 22ⁿᵈ, Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, which of the following statements is/are true?
A The sun never sets at Arctic Circle
B The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle
C The sun stands directly over the Tropic of Cancer
D The Northern Hemisphere receives more insolation than the southern hemisphere
Correct Answer B The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle
14. As one ascends from Jammu plains (300 m) to the Himalayas (4000 m), what would be the correct ecological sequence of the forest types?
A Tropical thorns – Himalayan moist temperate – Sub-tropical pine – Alpine meadows
B Sub-tropical pine – Tropical thorns – Alpine meadows – Himalayan moist temperate
C Tropical thorns – Sub-tropical pine – Himalayan moist temperate – Alpine meadows
D Alpine meadows – Himalayan moist temperate – Sub-tropical pine – Tropical thorns
Correct Answer C Tropical thorns – Sub-tropical pine – Himalayan moist temperate – Alpine meadows
15. The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempted which of the following projects from the prior approval of the Central government?
A When forest land is diverted for constructing any strategic linear projects of national importance within 100 km of India’s borders.
B When forest land is diverted for constructing any security-related infrastructure up to 10 hectares.
C Public utility projects as specified by the Central Government, not exceeding 5 hectares in a left-wing extremism-affected area.
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
16. Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries with the districts they are located in
| Wildlife Sanctuaries (List-I) | Specific Districts (List-II) |
|---|---|
| i. Hirapora sanctuary | a. Reasi |
| ii. Rajparian (Daksum) sanctuary | b. Shopian |
| iii. Trikuta sanctuary | c. Anantnag |
Choose the correct match:
A i-a, ii-c, iii-b
B i-b, ii-a, iii-c
C i-b, ii-c, iii-a
D i-a, ii-b, iii-c
Correct Answer C i-b, ii-c, iii-a
17. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? (Dams — Rivers)
| Dams (List-I) | Rivers (List-II) |
|---|---|
| I. Uri-II | Jhelum |
| II. Salal dam | Chenab |
| III. Pakul Dul dam | Marusudar |
| IV. Dulhasti dam | Ravi |
A I and II only
B I and IV only
C I, II and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C I, II and III only
18. Which of the following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?
A Farm ponds
B Rooftop rainwater harvesting
C Underground storage tanks for the storage of rainwater
D Storing water in the soil profile through mulching or contour bunding
Correct Answer D Storing water in the soil profile through mulching or contour bunding
19. Identify the INCORRECT statements about tunnels in Jammu and Kashmir —
I. Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel is a 9 km long, twin-tube, all-weather road tunnel connecting Udhampur and Ramban.
II. Tunnel T50, a 12.77 km engineering feat connecting Khari and Sumbur in Jammu & Kashmir, stands as one of India’s longest transportation tunnels constructed under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer A I only
20. The UNESCO World Heritage Sites ‘Mountain Railways of India’ recognises which of the following?
A Kalka-Shimla Railways
B Nilgiri Mountain Railways
C Darjeeling Himalayan Railways
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
21. A computer uses 8-bit 2’s complement representation. Which of the following operations will cause overflow?
A 01010101 + 00110011
B 10011001 + 10101010
C 01111111 + 00000001
D 11110000 + 00010000
Correct Answer C 01111111 + 00000001
22. Which of the following statements is true regarding applications of Information Technology?
A E-governance eliminates the need for physical government offices.
B E-commerce only involves buying physical goods through websites.
C Telemedicine allows doctors to provide consultation using communication networks.
D Online education requires students to be physically present in a digital classroom.
Correct Answer C Telemedicine allows doctors to provide consultation using communication networks
23. Match the following (Column-I / Column-II)
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|---|
| i. Firmware | a. Translates high-level language into machine code |
| ii. Utility Software | b. Controls communication between operating system and hardware device |
| iii. Device Driver | c. Stored permanently in ROM to initialize hardware |
| iv. Compiler | d. Performs system maintenance tasks like disk cleanup |
Choose the correct option:
A i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
B i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
C i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
D i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
Correct Answer A i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
24. A student is using a computer with 8 GB RAM. He opens:
- A web browser with 25 tabs
- A video editing software
- A music player
- A code editor
After some time, the system becomes slow, but it does NOT crash. The hard disk activity light keeps blinking continuously even though he is not saving or opening files. Which of the following is the most accurate explanation?
A The operating system has stopped multitasking and is running programs one by one.
B The CPU cache memory is full, so the system is waiting for space to free up.
C The operating system is using virtual memory and swapping data between RAM and disk.
D The BIOS is reallocating hardware resources dynamically.
Correct Answer C The operating system is using virtual memory and swapping data between RAM and disk
25. A government launches a system where: citizens apply for documents online; applications are automatically verified using databases; SMS/email updates are sent automatically; officials approve requests digitally; data is stored centrally and accessed across departments. Which of the following best explains the real contribution of IT in this system?
A IT only replaces paper-based records with digital files.
B IT reduces manpower by completely eliminating human decision-making.
C IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation.
D IT mainly provides internet access so citizens can submit forms online.
Correct Answer C IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation
26. A student uploads a PDF file to an online PDF-to-JPG converter website. After conversion, he downloads the JPG files but later notices: the images are blurred; file size is much larger than expected; text cannot be copied anymore. Which of the following is the most accurate reason?
A The PDF was converted into raster images.
B The website reduced internet speed.
C The browser changed the file extension.
D The file was uncompressed using ZIP format.
Correct Answer A The PDF was converted into raster images
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding KMZ files and geo-tagged photos?
A A KMZ file stores only image files with location names.
B Geo-tagging embeds latitude and longitude inside image metadata.
C KMZ files cannot contain coordinate information.
D Uploading a geo-tagged photo automatically creates a KMZ file.
Correct Answer B Geo-tagging embeds latitude and longitude inside image metadata
28. Which of the following statements is correct regarding computer viruses and modern antivirus systems?
A A virus can execute automatically without user action once present in memory.
B Signature-based antivirus detects only previously identified malware patterns.
C Online registration guarantees protection against zero-day attacks.
D A firewall and antivirus perform exactly the same function.
Correct Answer A A virus can execute automatically without user action once present in memory.
29. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the use of modern computer applications in field operations of a Forest Department?
A Mobile apps are used for taking photographs of trees.
B GIS-enabled apps integrate GPS data, satellite imagery.
C Forest apps replace the need for physical field inspections completely.
D Field applications work without network or data synchronization.
Correct Answer C Forest apps replace the need for physical field inspections completely.
30. In an e-Office system, a confidential file is sent digitally from a section officer to a higher authority. The department wants to ensure that only the intended officer can read the file during transmission. Which of the following ensures confidentiality during transmission?
A Applying a digital signature to the document using a public key infrastructure
B Encrypting the file using the recipient’s public key
C Adding a watermark to the document
D Scanning the file before sending it
Correct Answer B Encrypting the file using the recipient’s public key.
31. What does the idiom “break the ice” mean?
A To build a wall
B To start a conversation
C To cause a disruption
D To make a mistake
Correct Answer B To start a conversation.
32. What does the idiom “hit the nail on the head” mean?
A To criticize someone harshly
B To miss the target
C To hit something hard
D To be exactly right or accurate
Correct Answer D To be exactly right or accurate.
33. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
The speaker’s argument was compelling enough to persuade the audience.
A Convincing
B Boring
C Criticizing
D Harsh
Correct Answer A Convincing.
34. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
His explanation was ambiguous, leaving the audience confused.
A Direct
B Uncertain
C Clear
D Precise
Correct Answer B Uncertain.
35. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
P. often determines the success of collective efforts
Q. effective leadership
R. by aligning individual goals
S. with a shared vision and purpose
Options:
A QPRS
B QRPS
C PQRS
D PSQR
Correct Answer B Q R P S (i.e., QRPS — effective leadership by aligning individual goals with a shared vision and purpose often determines the success of collective efforts.)
36. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
P. cannot be addressed through isolated actions
Q. complex environmental problems
R. that require coordinated global efforts
S. but demand long-term strategic planning
Options:
A QPSR
B QRPS
C PQRS
D PSQR
Correct Answer B Q R P S (i.e., QRPS — complex environmental problems that require coordinated global efforts but demand long-term strategic planning cannot be addressed through isolated actions.)
37. I am going to ___ concert tomorrow.
A a
B on
C an
D None of the above
Correct Answer A a.
38. At ___ equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day.
A A
B The
C An
D None of the above
Correct Answer B The.
39. The doctor gave me a prescription ___ my cough.
A For
B To
C A
D With
Correct Answer A For.
40. My watch is ___ the table.
A In
B On
C For
D None of the above
Correct Answer B On.
41. Volume of a cuboid of length (l), width (b) and height (h) is
A lbh
B lb + bh + hl
C 2 (l + b) h
D 2 (lb + bh + hl)
Correct Answer A lbh.
42. The area of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 8.2 cm is
A 82 cm²
B 410 cm²
C 41 cm²
D 820 cm²
Correct Answer C 41 cm². (Area = ½ × d₁ × d₂ = 0.5 × 10 × 8.2 = 41)
43. A circular pond has a circumference of 22 km. What is its diameter?
A 15 km
B 1.5 km
C 0.7 km
D 7 km
Correct Answer D 7 km. (Using π = 22/7: d = C/π = 22 ÷ (22/7) = 7)
44. The distance covered by a tyre of 84 cm radius in 4 revolutions is
A 1056 cm
B 2112 cm
C 840 cm
D 1840 cm
Correct Answer B 2112 cm. (Circumference = 2πr = 168π ≈ 528 cm; ×4 ≈ 2112 cm)
45. The length of a field is increased by 50%, and its width is decreased by 40%. The percentage change in its area is
A 5% increase
B 15% increase
C 20% decrease
D 10% decrease
Correct Answer D 10% decrease. (New area = 1.5 × 0.6 = 0.9 → 10% decrease)
46. The linear equation 3x − 11y = 10 has
A Unique solution
B Two solutions
C Infinitely many solutions
D No solutions
Correct Answer C Infinitely many solutions. (one linear eqn in two variables → infinite solutions)
47. Point (3,4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = kx + 7. The value of k is
A 4/5
B 5/3
C 4/3
D 4/7
Correct Answer B 5/3. (3×4 = k×3 + 7 → 12 = 3k + 7 → k = 5/3)
48. The graph of linear equation x + 2y = 2 cuts the y-axis at
A (1,0)
B (2,0)
C (0,1)
D (0,2)
Correct Answer C (0,1). (x=0 → 2y=2 → y=1)
49. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is
A 625
B 635
C 645
D 655
Correct Answer A 625. (Difference = P[(1.04)² − 1] − P(0.08) = P(0.0016) = 1 → P = 625)
50. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4,347. The period (in years) is
A 2.5
B 2
C 5
D 4
Correct Answer B 2 years. (Check: 30000[(1.07)² − 1] ≈ 4347)
51. { 720 ÷ 12 + 18 × 4 } + 6 + 25% of 160 = ?
A 88
B 66
C 62
D 72
Correct Answer (numeric) 178.
Note: the printed option-letter that matches 178 is not clearly visible on the scan — please check the original page image if you want me to match it to its option letter precisely.
52. 480 ÷ { 16 − 8 × (3/4) } + 35% of 200 = ?
.A 111
B 121
C 100
D 101
53. -(-3)(-2-8-4) ÷ [3{5+(-2)(-1)}]=?
A 35
B -34
C -41
D -2
54. What’s the probability of drawing a red card or a card with a face (king, queen, or jack) from a standard deck of 52 cards?
A 13/15
B 1/4
C 29/52
D 8/13
Correct Answer D 8/13. (P = 26/52 + 12/52 − 6/52 = 32/52 = 8/13)
55. What is the probability of a sure event?
A 1
B 0.5
C 0
D 0.25
Correct Answer A 1.
56. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 6 on a die?
A 1
B 0.5
C 0
D 0.25
Correct Answer C 0. (Standard die has faces 1–6; none >6)
57. By selling a bicycle for Rs. 2,850 a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be
A 2700
B 2750
C 20750
D 27000
Correct Answer A 2700. (CP = 2850 / 1.14 = 2500 → SP at 8% = 2500 × 1.08 = 2700)
58. A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above his cost price but allows a discount of 10% at the time of sale. His gain is
A 20%
B 2.5%
C 15%
D 17%
Correct Answer D 17%. (Marked = 1.30CP; after 10% discount SP = 1.30×0.90 = 1.17CP → 17% gain)
59. If the selling price of 12 books is equivalent to the cost price of 18 copies, then calculate the profit percent.
A 44%
B 50%
C 55%
D 25%
Correct Answer B 50%. (SP per book = (18/12)CP = 1.5CP → 50% profit)
60. Rick bought cold drinks of Rs. 56,000. Then he sold 1/3ᵗʰ of the total purchase at a 40% loss. How much profit does he need to earn on the remaining cold drinks to cover the loss?
A 20%
B 18%
C 17%
D 22%
Correct Answer A 20%.
61. With reference to ‘Rat-hole mining’ as practiced in parts of Northeast India, identify the correct statements.
I. It is a process of digging narrow horizontal tunnels into the hill slopes by extraction workers.
II. The National Green Tribunal has banned this practice.
III. Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) caused by this practice is characterized by high pH levels, making the water highly alkaline.
A I and III only
B II only
C I and II only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C I and II only. (III is incorrect — AMD causes acidic, low-pH conditions)
62. Select the correct statements about Eutrophication.
I. It is a general term describing a process in which nutrients accumulate in a body of water, resulting in increased growth of organisms.
II. It leads to an increase in levels of dissolved oxygen, favoring fish growth.
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer A I only. (Eutrophication ultimately reduces dissolved oxygen due to decomposition)
63. Which of the following statements best describes ‘Altitudinal Migration’?
A Movement of Marine species towards the equator for warmer waters
B Long-distance migration across continents to avoid harsh warm weather conditions
C Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat
D Movement of Marine species towards the surface warm waters
Correct Answer C Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat.
64. As of February 2026, which of the following best describes India’s progress towards its ‘Panchamrit’ targets outlined at COP-26 held at Glasgow?
A India has successfully achieved the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity.
B India has decided to shift its net-zero target from 2070 to 2047.
C Renewable energy accounts for more than 50% of India’s daily electricity production.
D India’s total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.
Correct Answer D India’s total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity.
65. Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to their primary objectives.
| SDG (List-I) | Objectives (List-II) |
|---|---|
| i. SDG-6 | a. Life below water |
| ii. SDG-14 | b. Clean water and sanitation |
| iii. SDG-15 | c. Affordable and clean energy |
| iv. SDG-7 | d. Life on land |
Options shown on paper:
A i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
B i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
Correct Answer C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
(So: SDG-6 → Clean water & sanitation; SDG-14 → Life below water; SDG-15 → Life on land; SDG-7 → Affordable & clean energy.)
66. Select the correct statements about the Swachh Vayu Survekshan awards, 2025.
I. Indore secured first rank with a score of 200 out of 200 in Category-1 (states having over 10 lakh population).
II. Amravati secured first rank in Category-2 (states having population between 3 and 10 lakh).
III. Dewas secured first rank in Category-3 (states having population under 3 lakh).
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above.
67. Arrange the following steps in Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) in correct chronological order:
I. Screening
II. Scoping
III. EIA Report
IV. Impact Analysis
V. Review and Public Participation
Options on paper — correct order = I → II → IV → III → V
Correct Answer I-II-IV-III-V (option C on the paper).
68. Which of the following authorities are constituted under the umbrella of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for wildlife conservation?
I. Central Zoo Authority
II. State Board for Wildlife
III. National Tiger Conservation Authority
IV. National Coastal Zone Management Authority
A I and II only
B I, II and III only
C I, III and IV only
D All of the above
Correct Answer B I, II and III only. (NCZMA is not under WPA)
69. As per Land Use Statistics (2022–23), published by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, what is the percentage of ‘Net Sown Area’ to the ‘Total Reported Area’ in Jammu & Kashmir?
A 19.01%
B 18.4%
C More than 20%
D Less than 17%
Correct Answer B 18.4%.
70. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? (Bird Sanctuary — State)
- Atapaka Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh
- Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary — Goa
- Attiveri Bird Sanctuary — Karnataka
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above.
71. A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit at a height where the acceleration due to gravity is 4.9 m/s². If the radius of the Earth is 6,371 km, what is the orbital speed of the satellite? (Use g = 9.8 m/s², √2 = 1.414, √10 = 3.162)
A 4.6 km/s
B 6.6 km/s
C 9.8 km/s
D 11.2 km/s
Correct Answer B 6.6 km/s.
(Reason: The orbital radius at which g = 4.9 is R√2; using the physics relations gives ≈ 6.6 km/s.)
72. A metal rod is heated at one end, and the temperature at the other end rises slowly over time. At the same time, a sealed glass flask filled with water is placed over a flame, and the water temperature rises quickly. Which of the following statements is correct regarding modes of heat transfer in each scenario (Rod and Flask)?
A Rod: Convection; Flask: Conduction and Radiation
B Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection and Radiation
C Rod: Conduction; Flask: Conduction and Radiation
D Rod: Radiation; Flask: Convection
Correct Answer B Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection and Radiation.
73. An object 2 m tall is placed at a distance of 50 cm in front of a convex lens. The lens has a power of +5 D. Calculate the height and nature of the image formed by the lens.
A 1 m, virtual and erect
B 1.33 m, real and inverted
C 1.5 m, real and inverted
D 1.6 m, virtual and erect
Correct Answer B 1.33 m, real and inverted.
(Reason: Power +5 D → f = 0.2 m; object u = 0.5 m → v = 1/3 m → magnification = v/u = 2/3 → image height = 2/3 × 2 m = 4/3 m = 1.33 m, real and inverted.)
74. Which of the following statements about cells is NOT true?
A Plasma membrane is selective permeable that regulates the movement of nutrients into and out of the cell.
B Cell interior contains many specialized membrane-bound organelles.
C Mitochondria are organelles responsible for energy transactions needed for cell survival.
D Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
Correct Answer D Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
(Incorrect because ribosomes are not membrane-bound.)
75. Which of the following metals produce hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute nitric acid?
A Copper (Cu)
B Zinc (Zn)
C Magnesium (Mg)
D All of the above
Correct Answer C Magnesium (Mg)
76. Which of the following statements about conventional sources of energy and their improvements is true?
A Thermal power plants cannot exceed 35% efficiency, even with advanced boiler technology.
B Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.
C Hydroelectric power plants cannot improve energy output once the dam is built.
D Efficiency of petroleum refining is solely determined by the quality of crude oil, not technology.
Correct Answer B Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.
77. Which of the following statements about non-conventional sources of energy and their improvements is correct?
A Commercial Solar panels can only convert 10–12% of sunlight into electricity.
B Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades.
C Tidal energy cannot be harnessed effectively due to the predictability of tides.
D Geothermal energy output is independent of drilling technology and heat extraction methods.
Correct Answer B Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades.
78. Match Column-I with Column-II (write match in tabular form)
| Column – I | Column – II |
|---|---|
| i. Cesium | a. A non-metal that is lustrous |
| ii. Zinc | b. A metal that is brittle |
| iii. Iodine | c. A metal that has a low melting point |
| iv. Graphite | d. A non-metal that is a good conductor of electricity |
Choose the correct option:
A i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
B i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
C i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
D i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
Correct Answer A i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
79. (Metals P, Q, R and extraction methods) — Text in paper:
“Metals P, Q, and R have different positions in the activity series. Metal P reacts vigorously with water, metal Q reacts slowly with acids, and metal R does not react with water or acids. Their oxides are PO₂, QO, and R₂O₃ respectively. Considering their reactivity and the methods typically used for extraction, which of the following correctly matches the metal with its most suitable extraction method?”
A P – Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q – Reduction by carbon; R – Reduction by carbon.
B P – Reduction by carbon; Q – Electrolysis of molten oxide; R – Electrolysis of molten oxide.
C P – Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q – Reduction by carbon; R – Native metal, no extraction needed.
D P – Reduction by carbon; Q – Native metal, no extraction needed; R – Electrolysis of molten oxide.
Correct Answer C P – Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q – Reduction by carbon; R – Native metal, no extraction needed.
80. Which of the following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition?
A Nitrosomonas
B Amoeba
C Plasmodium
D Paramecium
Correct Answer C Plasmodium
81. Which of the following statements about transportation of water, food and minerals in plants is NOT correct?
A The ascent of sap in tall trees primarily occurs due to transpiration pull, cohesion and adhesion forces rather than root pressure alone.
B Xylem transports water and dissolved minerals mainly in an upward direction while phloem can transport food both upward and downward.
C Phloem transport requires metabolic energy, whereas xylem transport is largely a passive process.
D Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis.
Correct Answer D Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis. (Incorrect — minerals mainly move via xylem.)
82. Which of the following statements about excretion in plants and animals is correct?
A Plants lack specialized excretory organs, so all metabolic wastes are removed exclusively through stomata by diffusion.
B Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves and vacuoles.
C In mammals, the primary nitrogenous waste is uric acid, which requires minimal water for excretion compared to ammonia.
D Animals and plants both rely mainly on transpiration as their primary mechanism of excretion.
Correct Answer B Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves and vacuoles.
83. A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Over time scientists observed:
i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation of a persistent chemical that caused neurological disorders in humans who consumed them.
ii. The air contained high levels of a gas that reacts with water to form acid rain, damaging monuments and crops.
iii. Soil had elevated heavy metal concentrations, leading to reduced fertility and toxicity in plants.
On the basis of the observations, pair each cause (i, ii, iii) with the corresponding pollutant (a, b, c) and answer the correct statement:
a) Mercury
b) Sulfur dioxide
c) Lead
A i → a, ii → b, iii → c
B i → a, ii → c, iii → b
C i → b, ii → c, iii → a
D i → c, ii → b, iii → a
Correct Answer A i → a (Mercury), ii → b (Sulfur dioxide), iii → c (Lead)
84. Consider the following jumbled food chain: Grasshopper → Grass → Hawk → Frog → Snake
If the energy content of the frog is x kJ, the energy available to the primary consumer is:
A 10x kJ
B x kJ
C x/10 kJ
D x/100 kJ
Correct Answer A 10x kJ
85. Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between ozone depletion and climate change?
A CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming.
B Ozone depletion directly causes the greenhouse effect.
C Greenhouse gases directly destroy ozone molecules.
D Reducing CO₂ emissions alone can fully restore the ozone layer.
Correct Answer A CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming.
86. Which of the following was NOT a character studied by Mendel in his experiments with Pisum sativum?
A Stem height
B Flower shape
C Pod shape and colour
D Seed shape and colour
Correct Answer B Flower shape
87. Ali was breeding two Pisum sativum plants for plant height and seed shape. He noticed the following in the offspring: All plants were Tall. Seed shape ratio: 3 (Round) : 1 (Wrinkled). How many possible combinations (unordered) of parental genotypes could produce this result?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Correct Answer B 2
88. Raghav is trying to understand when plant cells are haploid (N) or diploid (2N) during sexual reproduction. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The microspore and megaspore are diploid (2N) cells that undergo meiosis, and the fertilized zygote remains haploid (N).
B The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote.
C The pollen and ovule mother cells are haploid (N) before meiosis and form diploid gametes after meiosis.
D The pollen and ovule mother cells are diploid (2N), and meiosis produces haploid gametes, but fertilization does not restore the diploid number.
Correct Answer B The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote.
89. Raghav was confused about how plants reproduce asexually. His teacher explained methods like Budding and Fragmentation, but Raghav wasn’t sure how to tell them apart. Which of the following best distinguishes the two processes?
A In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.
B In budding, offspring develop from specialized reproductive cells, whereas in fragmentation, the parent divides under environmental stress to form new organisms.
C In budding, a small part of the parent detaches and grows into an independent organism, whereas in fragmentation the parent splits into fragments that grow into independent organisms.
D In budding, the offspring remain attached to the parent for a while, while in fragmentation the parent breaks into two parts that grow into independent organisms.
Correct Answer A In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.
90. Which of the following correctly matches the organism with its classification group?
I. Rose — Monocotyledon
II. Frog — Amphibian
III. Mango — Gymnosperm
IV. Shark — Reptile
Choose the correct match:
A Only II
B Only I and II
C Only II and IV
D All of the above
Correct Answer A Only II
91. Match the following books/texts with their respective authors (presented in tabular form)
| Books/Texts (List-I) | Authors (List-II) |
|---|---|
| i. Voice of India | a. R.C. Dutt |
| ii. Economic History of India | b. Dadabhai Naoroji |
| iii. Unhappy India | c. Rajendra Prasad |
| iv. India Divided | d. Lala Lajpat Rai |
Choose the correct match:
A i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
B i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
Correct Answer C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(i. Voice of India — Dadabhai Naoroji; ii. Economic History of India — R.C. (Romesh) Chunder Dutt; iii. Unhappy India — Lala Lajpat Rai; iv. India Divided — Rajendra Prasad.)
92. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Geographical Discoveries:
I. Cape of Good Hope — Vasco De Gama
II. Solar System — Kepler
III. Australia — James Cook
A I only
B III only
C I and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer B III only
93. Consider the following information regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and identify the INCORRECT statements.
I. Every member country has an equal voting power regardless of its financial contribution.
II. The IMF created Special Drawing Rights (SDR) as an international reserve asset in 1969.
III. Private entities and individuals can also hold Special Drawing Rights (SDR).
A I only
B II only
C I and III only
D II and III only
Correct Answer C I and III only
94. Which of the following Space Missions are successfully conducted by ISRO to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for docking and undocking of two small spacecraft in low-Earth circular orbit?
A Aditya L-1
B Gaganyaan
C NISAR
D SPADEX
Correct Answer D SPADEX
95. Which of the following personalities of Jammu and Kashmir was recently awarded Padma Shri (2026) for his/her social work?
A Omar Abdullah
B Ghulam Nabi Azad
C Rehman Rahi
D Brij Lal Bhat
Correct Answer D Brij Lal Bhat
96. Following the 2019 Reorganization, while the legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can legislate on state matters, which of the following subjects are exclusively reserved for the Union government (i.e., not within the Assembly’s competence)?
A Public order and Police
B Education and Health
C Local self-government
D Agriculture and Industries
Correct Answer A Public order and Police
97. Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab?
I. Ujh river
II. Marusudar river
III. Niru (Neeru) river
IV. Ans river
V. Tawi river
Choose the correct option:
A I, II, IV and V only
B II, IV and V only
C II, III, IV and V only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C II, III, IV and V only
98. Match the following: Kashmir Sultans with Major Contribution/Title
| Kashmir Sultans (List-I) | Major Contribution / Title (List-II) |
|---|---|
| i. Shams-ud-din Shah Mir | a. Establishment of the Sultanate in Kashmir in 1339 CE |
| ii. Sikandar Butshikan | b. Construction of the magnificent Jama Masjid in Srinagar in 1394 AD |
| iii. Yusuf Shah Chak | c. The last independent ruler of Kashmir |
Options:
A i-a, ii-c, iii-b
B i-b, ii-c, iii-a
C i-a, ii-b, iii-c
D i-b, ii-a, iii-c
Correct Answer C i-a, ii-b, iii-c
99. According to the Indian State of Forest Report, 2023, what is the Total Forest Cover of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir as a percentage of its total geographic area?
A 38.15%
B 37.15%
C 39.15%
D 36.15%
Correct Answer B 37.15%
100. Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project:
I. Indian Railway’s first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project.
II. The iconic 1315 m long Chenab bridge is the World’s highest railway arch bridge, standing 359 m above the river bed.
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer C Both I and II
101. Complete the following number series:
3, 3, 13, 81, 603, ___
A 5291
B 6691
C 5491
D 4891
Correct Answer C 5491
(Pattern used: n_{k+1} = n_k × odd multiplier + (even square): 3×1+0=3; 3×3+2²=13; 13×5+4²=81; 81×7+6²=603; next 603×9+8²=5491.)
102. Fill in the blanks with appropriate letters to complete the following letter series
a _ d _ k d a _ d f k a_ d f k d
B c,f,c,f,d,c
C c,f,d,f,c
D c,f,c,d,f
Correct Answer
103. In a certain language, BRAIN is coded as TPKDC. Then in that language, MINDS will be coded as:
A UPOKF
B NPOKF
C TPOKF
D ZPOKF
Correct Answer
104. At 5 p.m., Mr Floyd is standing facing a tower. His shadow falls exactly to his right. After 30 minutes, he turns 180° and starts walking straight. In which direction is he walking?
A East
B North
C South
D West
Correct Answer C South
105. Consider the following information and answer the given question.
M is the mother of N.
N is the brother of O.
O is the wife of P.
P is the son of Q.
How is O related to Q?
A Grand Daughter
B Mother
C Daughter
D Daughter-in-law
Correct Answer D Daughter-in-law
106. A pump fills a water tank. If its pumping speed is increased to 9/7 of its original speed, the tank gets filled 30 minutes earlier than usual. How much time did the pump originally take to fill the tank?
A 135 minutes
B 140 minutes
C 145 minutes
D 150 minutes
Correct Answer A 135 minutes
107. Three boats, A, B and C, start from the same jetty and move in the same direction along a river. Their speeds in still water are 18 km/h, 24 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively. Boat B starts 1 hour after Boat A. If Boat B and Boat C overtake Boat A at the same time, how many hours after Boat B did Boat C start?
A 1 hour
B 2 hours
C 3 hours
D Cannot be determined
Correct Answer A 1 hour
108. Choose the correct inference from the statements.
Statements:
I. All scientists are researchers.
II. No researcher is a poet.
Conclusions:
I. No scientist is a poet.
II. Some researchers are definitely scientists.
A Only Conclusion I follows
B Only Conclusion II follows
C Both I and II follow
D Neither I nor II follow
Correct Answer A Only Conclusion I follows
109. Find the correct answer: If SMART = 96 and MIND = 56, then PRO = ?
A 55
B 56
C 57
D 58
Correct Answer D 58
(Pattern: numeric code = sum of alphabetical positions of letters + (length)². SMART: sum=71 + 5²(25) = 96. MIND: sum=40 + 4²(16)=56. PRO: sum=49 + 3²(9) = 58.)
110. A company divides its total investment of Rs.12,00,000 among three projects A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. After one year:
Project A gives a return of 10% profit.
Project B gives a return of 20% profit.
Project C incurs a 10% loss.
What is the overall percentage gain or loss of the company?
A 3% loss
B 3% profit
C 3.6% profit
D 3.6% loss
Correct Answer B 3% profit
111. Following the suppression of the revolt of 1857, what major constitutional change was adopted via the Government of India Act, 1858?
A Indians were allotted an equal representation in the Indian Legislative Assembly, similar to the Britishers.
B The post of Governor of Bengal was transformed to Governor General of India.
C The power of the East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown.
D The Indian Executive Council was composed mainly of Indian leaders.
Correct Answer C The power of the East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown.
112. Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?
A Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883)
B Partition of Bengal (1905)
C Formation of the Indian National Congress (1885)
D Passing of the Vernacular Press Act (1878)
Correct Answer D Passing of the Vernacular Press Act (1878)
113. The “Safety Valve theory” propounded by leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai in the context of the formation of the Indian National Congress suggests that—
A The British used Congress to directly recruit the Indians for World War-II.
B The Congress was formed to protect small Indian industries from British competition.
C Congress was established as a platform to secure the religious interests and prevent communal disputes.
D The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857.
Correct Answer D The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857.
114. What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?
A To attain Purna Swaraj
B To allow separate electorates for all marginalized groups
C Expansion of Legislative Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services
D Total boycott of British institutions like the Judiciary
Correct Answer C Expansion of Legislative Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services
115. Match the following in the context of the Swadeshi Movement — Swadeshi Initiatives with Associated Leader
| Swadeshi Initiative (List-I) | Associated Leader (List-II) |
|---|---|
| i. Bengal Chemicals Factory | a. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai |
| ii. Steam Navigation Company | b. Prafulla Chandra Ray |
| iii. Dawn Society | c. Ashwini Kumar Dutta |
| iv. Swadeshi Bandhab Samiti | d. Satish Chandra Mukherjee |
Options:
A i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
B i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
C i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
D i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
Correct Answer B i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
116. Arrange the following historical events in the correct chronological order:
I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
II. Formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
III. Self-Respect Movement by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
IV. Chauri Chaura incident during the Non-Cooperation Movement
Options (as on paper) → correct chronological order = I → IV → II → III
Correct Answer I-IV-II-III
117. Why was the Shimla deputation (1906) prominent for the rise of the Muslim League in India?
A The deputation was granted the right to form Pakistan by Lord Minto.
B It convinced the Viceroy Minto to reunite Bengal after the partition.
C Muslims were given the immediate majority of representation in the Executive Council by Lord Minto.
D The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates.
Correct Answer D The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates.
118. Who were the two primary brothers who founded the ‘All India Khilafat Committee’ in 1919?
A Mohammad Jinnah and Shaukat Ali
B Mohammad Ali and Hasrat Mohani
C Shaukat Ali and Aga Khan
D Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
Correct Answer D Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
119. In which of the following places was a ‘Parallel Government’ (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?
A Ballia (United Provinces)
B Tamluk (West Bengal)
C Saurashtra (Gujarat)
D Satara (Maharashtra)
Correct Answer D Satara (Maharashtra)
120. On which of the following dates the “Indian Independence Act-1947” was given the British Royal Assent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?
A June 3, 1947
B June 5, 1947
C July 18, 1947
D August 15, 1947
Correct Answer C July 18, 1947
Exam Analysis: JKSSB Inspector (Forest) 2026
Initial feedback from candidates suggests that the difficulty level of the JKSSB Inspector (forest) Question Paper was Moderate to Difficult. The General Knowledge section focused heavily on J&K Reorganisation Act, History, and Geography of the UT, while the Science section was tailored specifically toward forestry and environmental conservation.
If you are preparing for multiple roles, it is also highly recommended to go through papers from other categories. While the Forest Inspector exam has a specific focus, looking at the JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper can help you master the Computer Science and General Aptitude sections that are common across various JKSSB recruitments.
Next Steps for Candidates
- Cross-Verify: Use the official answer keys provided above to mark your responses.
- Calculate Negative Marking: Remember that there is a penalty for wrong answers; calculate your net score accordingly.
- Monitor Cut-offs: Based on the difficulty level of today’s paper, stay tuned as we will soon publish a detailed expected cut-off analysis.
Stay Updated: We will be updating this post with a detailed subject-wise breakdown of the questions soon. Make sure to bookmark this page for all future updates regarding the JKSSB Forest Inspector result and selection list.
