The JKSSB Jr. Assistant Exam held on 19th April, 2026 has become one of the most चर्चित papers among aspirants. In this post, we have shared the fully solved question paper with answers, along with a clear review of the paper’s difficulty level and the kind of reaction it has generated among candidates. From reasoning and English to computer and general awareness, the paper tested both speed and depth of preparation.
Overall Summary / Review of the Question Paper:
The JKSSB Jr. Assistant Question Paper held on 19th April, 2026 can be described as a highly challenging and mixed-level paper. The English section tested grammar, vocabulary, comprehension of clauses, articles, pronouns, and sentence formation. The reasoning section included series, coding-decoding, direction sense, analogy, and statement-conclusion questions. The mathematics portion focused on work and time, number series, ratio, percentage, and arithmetic fundamentals. The computer awareness questions were conceptual and required proper understanding of hardware, software, memory, networking, MS Word, Excel, email, and internet basics.
Many aspirants shared that this was one of the toughest JKSSB papers they have seen in recent times. Some even compared its difficulty to higher-level competitive exams, while others felt the pattern was unusually tricky and demanding. In online discussions, several candidates expressed frustration, calling it a paper that required far more than routine preparation. Whether viewed as tough, unexpected, or highly selective, one thing is clear: this paper demanded strong conceptual clarity, speed, and careful reading of every question.
General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 20 Marks
1. Consider the following pairs:
City — Respective Country
I. Maracaibo — Ukraine
II. Tabriz — Venezuela
III. Nuuk — Greenland
IV. Donetsk — Iran
How many of the pairs are correct?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All of the above
Answer: A) Only one pair
2. What are the key components of the recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission in India?
I. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture, i.e. Agristack, Krishi Decision Support System, Comprehensive Soil Fertility, Profile Maps.
II. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES).
III. Support for the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC).
Identify the correct statements –
A) I and III only
B) II and III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III only
Answer: D) I, II and III only
3. Match the following and choose the correct option:
Statues — Personalities Associated
- Statue of Unity — i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- Statue of Oneness — ii. Adi Shankaracharya
- Statue of Equality — iii. Sri RamanujaAcharya
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
Answer: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
4. Which of the following sites are included in the Tentative List of World Heritage Sites released by UNESCO?
I. Khangchendzonga National Park
II. Natural Heritage of Varkala
III. Naga Hill Ophiolite
IV. Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills
V. Meghalaya Age Caves
VI. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
Choose the correct option:
A) II, III, IV and VI only
B) I, IV, V and VI only
C) II, III, IV and V only
D) All of the above
Answer: C) II, III, IV and V only
5. Consider the following statements about the Tribal Freedom Fighters.
I. Tilka Majhi mobilized the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury.
II. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu from the Santhal community led the Santhal in the Hul rebellion.
III. Malati Mem of the Tea-garden community strictly opposed Mahatma Gandhi’s satyagraha movement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) All of the above
D) None of the above
Answer: A) I and II only
6. With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events-
I. Poona Pact
II. Lord Irwin’s declaration
III. Second Round Table Conference
Arrange them in the correct chronological order:
A) I-II-III
B) II-I-III
C) I-III-II
D) II-III-I
Answer: D) II-III-I
7. Match the following pairs:
Hills — Related Regions
- Nilgiri Hills — i. Part of the Satpura Range
- Anamalai Hills — ii. Parallel to the Narmada Valley
- Mahadeo Hills — iii. Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats
- Vindhyan Range — iv. The Southern Part of the Western Ghats
Choose the correct match:
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i
D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Answer: D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
8. The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions?
A) Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
B) Minicoy and Lakshadweep
C) Nicobar and Indonesia
D) Andaman and Myanmar
Answer: A) Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
9. Consider the following statements regarding India’s demographic trends:
I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population.
II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency.
III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I and III only
B) II and III only
C) I and II only
D) All of the above
Answer: A) I and III only
10. Consider the following pairs:
Wetlands — States
I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu
II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh
III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh
IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All of the above
Answer: B) Two pairs only
11. Which Koppen climate type is described by the following characteristics?
I. Average monthly temperature rarely falls below 18°C.
II. Annual rainfall exceeds 2000 mm, distributed evenly throughout the year.
III. Humid conditions support dense evergreen forests.
A) Aw – Tropical savanna
B) Af – Tropical rainforest
C) Am – Tropical monsoon
D) BWh – Hot desert
Answer: B) Af – Tropical rainforest
12. Which of the following statements about India’s National Waterways are correct?
I. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is the Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, covering about 891 km.
II. National Waterway 3 (NW-3) is the West Coast Canal, which connects Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala.
III. National Waterway 97 (NW-97) runs on the Zuari River, connecting Sanvordem Bridge to Mormugao Port
IV. National Waterways 111 (NW-111) is operational in the Sunderbans Region.
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I, II and III only
D) All of the above
Answer: B) I and II only
13. According to Kalhana’s Rajatarangini, identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties in the Jammu and Kashmir region.
I. Gonanda dynasty
II. Utpala dynasty
III. Karkota Dynasty
IV. Lohara dynasty
A) I-II-III-IV
B) I-II-IV-III
C) I-IV-III-II
D) I-III-II-IV
Answer: D) I-III-II-IV
14. Consider the following statements about Bahu Fort in Jammu.
I. The ancient Bahu Fort in Jammu is believed to have been originally built by Raja Bahu Lochan about 3,000 years ago.
II. It was refurbished by the Dogra rulers in the 19th century.
III. Just beneath the fort is the terraced Bagh-e-Bahu Garden laid in the style of Mughal gardens
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
Answer: D) I, II and III
15. Which Kashmiri art form is described by the following lines?
I. It is a traditional folk theatre style combination of play and dance.
II. It differs from other forms as it features a single performer who performs, dances, and plays music.
III. It was mentioned by Kashmiri Sufi Saint, Sheikh Noor-ud-din Noorani (RA) in his verses and travel book of English writer, Sir Walter Lawrence.
A) Rouf
B) Chakri
C) Bhand Pather
D) Hafiza Dance
Answer: C) Bhand Pather
16. Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct?
I. Nishant Bagh Laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake.
II. The two most important structures within the Shalimar Bagh are the Pink Pavilion and Black Pavilion.
III. Achabal Bagh was also known as Sahebabad during the Mughal period.
A) I, II and III
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
Answer: A) I, II and III
17. Which of the following statements about the geographic characteristics of the Jammu region are correct?
I. Jammu city is situated on uneven ridges of the Shivalik Hills.
II. It is surrounded by the Ladakh range and Trikuta Range.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both of the above
D) Neither of the above
Answer: A) I only
18. Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range?
A) Ladakh Range
B) Zanskar Range
C) Karakoram Range
D) Zabarwan Range
Answer: D) Zabarwan Range
19. A Census planned in J & K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species?
A) Markhor
B) Hangul
C) Snow Leopard
D) Himalayan Brown Bear
Answer: A) Markhor
20. Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab?
I. Ujh river
II. Tawi river
III. Poonch river
IV. Neeru river
A) I and II only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II and III only
D) II, III and IV only
Answer: B) II and IV only
Computer Applications: 20 Marks
21. Which of the following is the fundamental operation performed by computers to carry out arithmetic computations in the ALU?
A) Using transistors to store decimal values directly
B) Processing binary data through logic gate operations.
C) Executing floating-point operations in software only
D) Running high-level programming instructions in the CPU
Answer: B) Processing binary data through logic gate operations.
22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between instruction execution, memory hierarchy, and addressing modes in a typical von Neumann architecture computer system?
A) Immediate addressing always speeds up execution by avoiding memory access.
B) A larger cache always improves performance, regardless of hit ratio.
C) Data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing.
D) Virtual memory removes the need for cache memory.
Answer: C) Data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing.
23. Which statement is correct concerning computer memory and data storage fundamentals?
A) RAM is non-volatile memory and retains data without power
B) ROM allows both read and write operations during normal computer functioning.
C) Cache memory is faster than the Main memory and stores frequently accessed data.
D) CPU directly accesses secondary storage devices without involving the main memory.
Answer: C) Cache memory is faster than the Main memory and stores frequently accessed data.
24. Which statement is correct regarding CPU operation and instruction execution?
A) The Program counter stores the address of the current instruction, executed by the CPU.
B) An interrupt is processed only after the completion of the entire program.
C) The instruction register stores the current instruction being decoded or executed.
D) All machine instructions require the same number of clock cycles to execute.
Answer: B) An interrupt is processed only after the completion of the entire program.
25. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Overflow in two’s complement addition can be detected by examining only the carry out of the most significant bit.
II. When converting an unsigned integer to a larger type, zero extension is used to preserve its value.
III. In Binary-Coded Decimal (BCD) representation, each decimal digit is encoded separately using four binary bits.
IV. In a byte-addressable system, the effective address calculation is dependent on instruction length.
A) Only IV is True
B) Only II and III are True
C) Only II and IV are True
D) Only III and IV are True
Answer: C) Only II and IV are True
26. Which of the following correctly classifies hardware and system software?
A) Device Driver – Hardware; Keyboard – System Software
B) Compiler – Hardware; RAM – System Software
C) CPU – Hardware; Operating System – System Software
D) Adobe Scan – Hardware; Monitor – System Software
Answer: A) Device Driver – Hardware; Keyboard – System Software
27. A computer has a quad-core CPU with a 2.4 GHz frequency, 16 GB RAM, and a 1TB SSD. A program that uses many threads and performs frequent disk operations is running very slowly and sometimes crashes. What is the most likely cause?
A) Inefficient multithreading and high memory usage
B) Insufficient CPU core performance
C) Large SSD causing slow disk access
D) Slow processor frequency
Answer: D) Slow processor frequency
28. Categorize the following devices as Input (I) and Output (O)
i) Light Pen
ii) Punch Card Reader
iii) Plotter
iv) Sound Card
v) Digitizer Tablet
vi) Drum Printer
vii) Scanner
A) Input: i), ii), v), vii); Output: iii), iv), vi)
B) Input: i), ii), v); Output: i), iii), iv), vi)
C) Input: ii), vii, viii); Output: i), iii), iv), vi)
D) Input: i), ii), v), vii); Output: iii), iv), vi)
Answer: D) Input: i), ii), v), vii); Output: iii), iv), vi)
29. Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions.
Devices
- Haptic Gloves
- Tactile Display
- Voice Response Unit (VRU)
- Data Glove
Statements
i. Generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction.
ii. Captures fine hand/finger movements for computer input.
iii. Detect user gestures and provide force feedback.
iv. Generates synthesised audio output for interaction with users.
A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
Answer: D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
30. In a system with multiple processes and resource types, which of the following is a valid method to recover from a deadlock?
A) Decreasing the CPU priority of all processes
B) Preempt resources from one process and allocate to another
C) Increase the priority of all processes in the deadlock
D) Increase the priority of one of the processes in the deadlock
Answer: B) Preempt resources from one process and allocate to another
31. Consider a system using preemptive priority scheduling with multiple real-time and user-level processes. Priority inheritance protocol is implemented.
I. Priority inversion can occur when a low-priority process holds a resource that a high-priority process needs.
II. Under priority inheritance, the low-priority process temporarily inherits the higher priority to avoid blocking.
III. Priority inversion can be completely avoided if all processes are scheduled in a round-robin fashion.
IV. Starvation may still occur for low-priority processes even with priority inheritance.
Which of the statements are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II and IV only
Answer: D) I, II and IV only
32. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about MS Word?
A) A content control can restrict editing in a document; however cannot enforce data validation.
B) You can apply different first-line indents and hanging indents to different paragraphs within the same style.
C) The Navigation Pane allows searching by headings, pages, or results, but cannot directly display comments.
D) In Track Changes, accepting a change permanently removes the author’s metadata associated with that change.
Answer: A) A content control can restrict editing in a document; however cannot enforce data validation.
33. Which of the following statements is true about MS Word?
A) Using Section Breaks allows different headers and footers in the same document.
B) Using Page Break allows you to have different headers and footers in the same document.
C) Headers and footers cannot be changed once set in a document.
D) Headers and footers are automatically deleted when you close the document
Answer: A) Using Section Breaks allows different headers and footers in the same document.
34. A company keeps sales data in column B and wants to categorise sales into three levels:
“High” if sales ≥ 1000
“Medium” if sales ≥ 500 but < 1000
“Low” if sales < 500
A student writes the formula in cell C2 as:
=IF(B2>=1000,”High”,IF(B2>=500,”Medium”,”Low”))
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The formula will always give an error.
B) The formula will give an error if B2 is blank.
C) The formula will give an error for non-numeric values in B2.
D) The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.
Answer: D) The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.
35. In Microsoft Excel, student scores are listed in column B (Math) and column C (Science). Which formula correctly counts the number of students who scored ≥ 80 in Math and ≥ 90 in Science?
A) =COUNTIFS(B2:B10,”>=80″,C2:C10,”>=90″)
B) =SUMPRODUCT((B2:B10>=80),(C2:C10>=90))
C) =SUM(IF((B2:B10>=80),(C2:C10>=90),1,0))
D) None of these
Answer: A) =COUNTIFS(B2:B10,”>=80″,C2:C10,”>=90″)
36. Which of the following statements is correct about email functionality?
A) Email filters/rules cannot automatically forward emails to another account without user intervention.
B) Digital signatures in email encrypt the message body so that only the recipient can read it.
C) POP3 protocol is used to download emails from the server to a local computer.
D) Using BCC ensures the sender and recipients cannot see each other.
Answer: C) POP3 protocol is used to download emails from the server to a local computer.
37. In Microsoft PowerPoint, which of the following existing slide contents CANNOT be directly converted into SmartArt, without re-entering the data?
A) A bulleted list
B) A table of data
C) A block of descriptive text
D) An indented text
Answer: B) A table of data
38. Consider the following statements about TCP/IP and Internet communication:
A) TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing.
B) TCP is faster than UDP because it does not perform any error checking.
C) IPv6 uses 256-bit addresses, but the header size is fixed at 40 bytes.
D) ICMP is used primarily for application-layer data transfer between web servers.
Answer: A) TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing.
39. Which of the following statements about Internet routing and protocols is correct?
A) BGP is used primarily for routing within a single local network.
B) ICMP is used to encrypt data packets over the Internet.
C) IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space.
D) HTTP/3 relies on TCP for faster connections and multiplexing multiple streams.
Answer: C) IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space.
40. In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS model, what is managed by the service provider?
A) Networking hardware
B) Operating system
C) Hardware platform and operating system
D) Operating system and data
Answer: A) Networking hardware
General Engish: 20 Marks
41. The senator’s apology was widely viewed as “too little, too late” after months of public outrage.
The idiom “too little, too late” most precisely conveys that the apology:
A) Was insincere and strategically calculated
B) Failed to address the full extent of the controversy
C) Was inadequate in both substance and timing to be effective
D) Was overshadowed by more pressing political developments
Answer: C) Was inadequate in both substance and timing to be effective
42. The committee’s proposal, though ambitious, was dismissed as “a bridge too far” by senior officials.
In this context, “a bridge too far” suggests that the proposal was:
A) Poorly structured and lacking practical detail
B) Conceptually sound but politically unpopular
C) Excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable
D) Intentionally provocative to test institutional boundaries
Answer: C) Excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable
43. The scholar was known for his perspicacious analysis of complex philosophical texts.
Which option is the closest synonym of perspicacious as used here?
A) Methodical
B) Astute
C) Meticulous
D) Circumspect
Answer: B) Astute
44. The editor criticized the article for its prolix treatment of an otherwise simple topic.
Which word is the most appropriate synonym of prolix in this context?
A) Discursive
B) Redundant
C) Verbose
D) Diffuse
Answer: C) Verbose
45. Her argument was praised for being cogent and logically compelling.
Which option is the best antonym of cogent?
A) Specious
B) Tentative
C) Ambiguous
D) Superficial
Answer: A) Specious
46. The professor was admired for his equanimous response to harsh criticism.
Which word is the most precise antonym of equanimous?
A) Volatile
B) Indifferent
C) Impulsive
D) Belligerent
Answer: A) Volatile
47. Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence:
The proposal which was submitted last week however requires further revision
A) The proposal, which was submitted last week however, requires further revision
B) The proposal which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision
C) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however requires further revision
D) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision
Answer: D) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision
48. Identify the type of clause in the sentence below:
What the committee decided surprised everyone present.
The clause “What the committee decided” is a:
A) Noun clause functioning as the subject
B) Adjective clause modifying committee
C) Adverbial clause of result
D) Independent clause with an implied subject
Answer: A) Noun clause functioning as the subject
49. In which sentence is the word “bank” used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below?
She deposited the cheque at the bank.
A) The pilot had to bank the aircraft sharply during the landing.
B) The children played on the bank of the river after school.
C) The bank approved the loan after a detailed review.
D) He works at a multinational bank in the city.
Answer: B) The children played on the bank of the river after school.
50. Choose the sentence in which the correct homophone has been used.
A) The principal asked the students to bare the consequences of their actions.
B) She decided to compliment the dress with a matching scarf.
C) The hikers were advised to pause the trail before nightfall.
D) He could not cite a single example to support his claim.
Answer: D) He could not cite a single example to support his claim.
51. Choose the sentence in which the pronoun usage is grammatically correct.
A) Each of the participants must submit their assignment by Friday.
B) Neither of the proposals achieved their intended objective.
C) Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.
D) The committee reached their decision after prolonged deliberation.
Answer: C) Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.
52. Identify the sentence with a clear and unambiguous pronoun reference.
A) When Sara met Lina, she was already upset.
B) The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late.
C) Rahul told Amit that he had won the scholarship.
D) After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor.
Answer: D) After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor.
53. Choose the sentence in which the use of articles is grammatically and contextually correct.
A) She is a expert in medieval literature and teaches at the university in Delhi.
B) He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process.
C) An honest administrator is essential for a effective governance.
D) The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.
Answer: B) He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process.
54. Choose the option that best expresses a logical deduction about a past event.
A) She may finish the experiment before the deadline.
B) He should have informed the committee earlier.
C) They must have overlooked the crucial data.
D) You can submit the application online.
Answer: C) They must have overlooked the crucial data.
55. Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into indirect speech:
The professor said, “I will review your thesis tomorrow.”
A) The professor said that he would review your thesis tomorrow.
B) The professor said that he will review your thesis the next day.
C) The professor said that he would review my thesis the next day.
D) The professor said that I would review your thesis the next day.
Answer: B) The professor said that he will review your thesis the next day.
56. Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph:
I. He worked hard to achieve his goals.
II. Success did not come easily to him.
III. Eventually, his efforts paid off.
IV. From a young age, he was determined to succeed.
A) IV → I → II → III
B) IV → II → I → III
C) II → IV → I → III
D) I → IV → II → III
Answer: A) IV → I → II → III
57. Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
I. She practiced every day to improve her skills.
II. As a result, she won the competition.
III. She wanted to become a professional dancer.
IV. Her dedication impressed her teachers.
A) III → I → IV → II
B) I → III → IV → II
C) III → IV → I → II
D) IV → I → III → II
Answer: A) III → I → IV → II
58. The following sentence has an error. Identify the part that contains the error.
The students (A) has submitted (B) their assignments (C) before the deadline (D).
A) The students
B) has submitted
C) their assignments
D) before the deadline
Answer: D) before the deadline
59. Choose the option that correctly complete the sentence:
She is proficient ___ French and German.
A) in
B) at
C) on
D) with
Answer: A) in
60. Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into the passive voice:
The committee will announce the results tomorrow.
A) The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow.
B) The results are announced by the committee tomorrow.
C) The results will announce by the committee tomorrow.
D) The committee will be announced the results tomorrow.
Answer: A) The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow.
Maths and Reasoning Ability 20 Marks
61. If a number 45678×9231 is divisible by 3, then how many values are possible for x?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: D) 4
62. If x = 2¹⁰ × 5⁶ then how many zeros will be there at the end of x?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
Answer: A) 6
63. The price of an article is reduced by 10%. By what percent should the new price be increased to get the original price?
A) 10%
B) 9⅑%
C) 11⅑%
D) 12%
Answer: C) 11⅑%
64. If x% of y = y% of x, then which of the following is true?
A) x > y
B) y > x
C) y = x
D) Cannot be determined
Answer: D) Cannot be determined
65. The average of x numbers is 15. The average of y numbers is 20. The average of all x+y numbers is 18. Find the ratio x:y.
A) 1:2
B) 2:1
C) 2:3
D) 3:2
Answer: C 2:3
66. If a discount 10% given on the marked price of a book, the publisher gains 20%. If discount is increased to 15%, the gain of the publisher is?
A) 12%
B) 13⅓%
C) 11⅓%
D) 10%
Answer: B 13 1/3 Percent
67. A barrel contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 3:1. How much fraction of the mixture must be drawn off and substituted by water so that the ratio becomes 1:1?
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 2/3
Answer: B 1/3
68. Find the Compound Ratio of a:b and c:d
A) ac:bd
B) ab:cd
C) ad:bc
D) ab:bcd
Answer: A) ac:bd
69. Three men A, B and C complete a work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. All three of them starts the work together. After 2 days A left and after next 2 days C also left. Find in how many more day’s whole work will be completed?
A) 6 days
B) 6 2/5 days
C) 6 3/5 days
D) 6 4/5 days
Answer: B) 6 2/5 days
70. A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete a work in 25 days. If they start work together and B leaves 7 days before completion, then the work will be completed in how many days?
A) 16 days
B) 14 days
C) 12 days
D) 10 days
Answer: C) 12 days
71. 1, 9, 35, 99, 225, ?
A) 375
B) 441
C) 451
D) 299
Answer: B) 441
72. C, E, K, Q, W, ?
A) C
B) D
C) E
D) F
Answer: A) C
73. A, D, I, P, Y, ?
A) I
B) J
C) K
D) L
Answer: B) J
74. In a code language:
• Letters are arranged in reverse order
• Each vowel is replaced by its position number in alphabet
If BALLOON → N1515LL1B, find MONDAY
A) Y1DN15M
B) M1DN15Y
C) Y15DN1M
D) M15DN15Y
Answer: A) Y1DN15M
75. A man is facing east. He turns 135° clockwise, then 90° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
A) South
B) South-East
C) South-West
D) East
Answer: B) South-East
76. A man said, “This girl is the daughter of my father’s only son’s wife.” How is the girl related to him?
A) Sister
B) Niece
C) Daughter
D) Mother
Answer: C) Daughter
77. Given: P ≥ Q > R, R ≤ S < T, P > T
Which statement is always true?
A) P = S
B) S < Q
C) Q > T
D) T > R
Answer: D) T > R
78. Ram while going to school reduces his speed to 4/5th of his actual speed and reaches 15 minutes late. Find the actual time of Ram.
A) 45 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 75 minutes
Answer: B) 60 minutes
79. Statement: “The government plans to reduce the import duty on electronics.”
Conclusions:
I. Prices of electronics may fall.
II. Domestic production of electronics will stop.
A) Only I follows
B) Only II follows
C) Both follow
D) Neither follows
Answer: A) Only I follows
80. Statement: Some books are fiction. All fictional books are popular.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are popular.
II. All popular things are fiction.
A) Only I follows
B) Only II follows
C) Both follow
D) Neither follows
Answer: A) Only I follows
Overall, this question paper has left a strong impression on the aspirants. Many candidates described it as unusually tough and time-consuming, while some felt that the level of questions was far beyond the expected standard. The paper has sparked intense discussion online, with many saying that JKSSB has raised the bar once again. For serious aspirants, this paper is a reminder that smart preparation, regular revision, and strong concept clarity are absolutely necessary to stay ahead.
