Fully Solved JKSSB Social Forestry Worker Question Paper with Answer Key

JKSSB Social Forestry Worker Question Paper 2026 – Fully Solved with Official Answer Key

Post Name

Social Forestry Worker

Exam Conducted By

JKSSB

Exam Date

17 May 2026

Question Paper

Fully Solved with Answers

The JKSSB Social Forestry Worker Exam 2026 was successfully conducted by the Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board on 17 May 2026. Thousands of candidates appeared in the examination across Jammu and Kashmir. After the exam, candidates were searching for the Social Forestry Worker Question Paper PDF, answer key, expected cut off and difficulty level analysis.

To help aspirants, we have provided the complete solved question paper along with the official answer key. Candidates can check every question one-by-one using the interactive Show Answer button provided below.

The paper included questions from:

  • General Awareness
  • Environment & Forestry
  • Computer Awareness
  • Reasoning Ability
  • Current Affairs
  • Court & Constitution

Looking for the JKSSB Social Forestry Worker Question Paper 2026 PDF? You are at the right place. We have provided the complete memory-based question paper along with the official answer key released by JKSSB.

This article contains:

  • ✅ All 120 Questions
  • ✅ Official Answer Key (Series B)
  • ✅ Show Answer Button for Every Question
  • ✅ Memory-Based Solved Paper
  • ✅ Expected Cut Off Discussion
  • ✅ Questions Asked from Current Affairs, Computer & Forestry
  • ✅ Mobile-Friendly Question Paper Format

Q1. A wooden toy is shaped like a rocket with a cone mounted on a cylinder. The total height of the rocket is 26 cm, while the height of the cone part is 8 cm. The base of the conical portion has a diameter of 12 cm, while the base diameter of the cylindrical portion is 6 cm. The conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow. Calculate the total cost of painting the orange portion in terms of π, if the cost of painting is 0.1 Rs per mm².

A) 870π

B) 8700π

C) 202.5π

D) 2025π

Correct Answer: D) 2025π

Q2. A right circular cylinder and a sphere have the same radius. If their total surface areas are also exactly equal, what is the ratio of the volume of the cylinder to the volume of the sphere?

A) 3 : 4

B) 2 : 3

C) 9 : 8

D) 3 : 2

Correct Answer: A) 3 : 4

Q3. HUMAN : NOSE :: FROG : __ ?

A) NOSE

B) GILLS

C) SKIN

D) LUNGS

Correct Answer: C) SKIN

Q4. WOMEN : EOPMNW :: APPLE : __ ?

A) EALSP

B) AELPP

C) LPPEA

D) EALPP

Correct Answer: B) AELPP

Q5. In a certain language, CHANGE is written as ‘BDFHIO’ and ‘AMEND’ is written as ‘BEFNO’. How will ‘SHIFT’ be coded in that language?

A) GIJU

B) THIS

C) TJGU

D) FHSIT

Correct Answer: C) TJGU

Q6. If RAM=16 and DAM=9, then DREAMS=?

A) 36

B) 30

C) 28

D) 32

Correct Answer: A) 36

Q7. Pointing to a photograph, Anisha said, “I did not have any siblings, but that woman’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. Whose photograph was it?

A) Her mother

B) Herself

C) Her cousin

D) Her daughter

Correct Answer: B) Herself

Q8. Introducing a woman, Rohan said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law”. How is the woman related to Rohan?

A) Wife

B) Niece

C) Daughter

D) Mother

Correct Answer: C) Daughter

Q9. Arpan is the son of Barkha. Barkha has a sister Charu, who has a son Dharmendra and a daughter Aditi. Dharmendra has a paternal uncle Iqbal. How is Arpan related to Dharmendra?

A) Father

B) Son

C) Uncle

D) Cousin

Correct Answer: D) Cousin

Q10. “My father is the only son of your Father”, a man said to a woman. How is the woman related to the man?

A) Sister-in-law

B) Paternal aunt

C) Mother

D) Sister

Correct Answer: D) Sister

Q11. Find the odd one out

A) Tsunami

B) Cyclone

C) Volcanic explosion

D) Avalanche

Correct Answer: B) Cyclone

Q12. Which pair is the odd one out

A) 32-18

B) 63-42

C) 77-42

D) 95-68

Correct Answer: C) 77-42

Q13. Which letter cluster is the odd one out?

A) KMI

B) TVR

C) FHI

D) MOK

Correct Answer: C) FHI

Q14. Find the odd number in the set 515, 732, 1725, 346

A) 515

B) 732

C) 1725

D) 346

Correct Answer: D) 346

Q15. A man is facing north. He turns 135 degrees in the anti-clock wise direction. Then he turned 180 degrees in a clockwise direction. In which direction is he facing now?

A) North-west

B) South-east

C) North-east

D) South-west

Correct Answer: B) South-east

Q16. At 9:15 am, the minute hand of a clock faces west. Then, at 6 pm on the same day, in which direction will the hour hand point?

A) South

B) West

C) East

D) North

Correct Answer: A) South

Q17. A man walks 57 m, turns right and walks 76 m, then turns right again and walks 57 m. If at the time of sunset, his shadow is to his left, in which direction did he start?

A) South

B) East

C) West

D) North

Correct Answer: A) South

Q18. Rehman travelled 32km north, 17km south and then 8km east. How far is he away from his starting point and in which direction?

A) 13km, North

B) 17km, North-East

C) 13km, North-East

D) 17km, East

Correct Answer: C) 13km, North-East

Q19. Choose the correct figure from the given answer options.

A) Option A

B) Option B

C) Option C

D) Option D

Correct Answer: B) Option B

Q20. The position of the dot in the question mark (?) figure is

A) V0

B) V2

C) V3

D) V4

Correct Answer: C) V3

Q21. A circle is divided into 5 equal slices. In each figure, x slices are removed, and the remaining slices form a pattern that corresponds to a number.

Observe the following:
Figure 1: When 2 slices are removed, the remaining pattern corresponds to 211.
Figure 2: When 1 slice is removed, the remaining pattern corresponds to 1023.

When 0 slices are removed, what number will the remaining figure represent?

A) 3125

B) 7776

C) 6561

D) 2401

Correct Answer: C) 6561

Q22. Choose the correct figure from the given answer options.

A) Option A

B) Option B

C) Option C

D) Option D

Correct Answer: B) Option B

Q23. In a research facility, there are 122 scientists. Some specialize in Quantum Physics (Q), Molecular Biology (M), and Organic Chemistry (O), while a few have no specialization in any of these fields. There are 65 in Q, 45 in M, and 42 in O. The intersection of Q and M is 20, Q and O is 25, and M and O is 15. The number of scientists in all three fields is exactly half the number of scientists who have no specialization in any of these three fields. How many scientists are specialized only in Organic Chemistry?

A) 10

B) 12

C) 15

D) 18

Correct Answer: C) 15

Q24. A survey of 500 people was conducted regarding their ownership of Smartwatches (S), Tablets (T), and VR Headsets (V). 285 people own a Smartwatch, 215 own a Tablet, and 115 own a VR Headset. Exactly 45 people own all three devices. There are 70 who own a Smartwatch and a VR Headset, while 50 own a Tablet and a VR Headset. There are 50 people who own none of these devices. How many people own a Smartwatch and a Tablet, but not a VR Headset?

A) 45

B) 55

C) 90

D) 105

Correct Answer: D) 105

Q25. A library has 300 rare books categorised by Fiction (F), Hardcover (H), and Best-sellers (B). There are 140 Fiction books, 120 Hardcover books, and 100 Best-sellers. 40 books are both Fiction and Hardcover, 30 are both Hardcover and Best-sellers, and 50 are both Fiction and Best-sellers. Exactly 20 books follow in all three categories. How many books are either Fiction or Hardcover, but not both, and are not Best-sellers?

A) 110

B) 120

C) 140

D) 160

Correct Answer: C) 140

Q26. In a software firm of 200 developers, everyone knows at least one language: Python (P), Java (J), and C++. The number of developers who know only Python is equal to the number of developers who know only Java. 30 developers know only C++. Exactly 10 developers know all three languages. 35 developers know both Python and Java, 25 know both Java and C++, and 30 know both Python and C++. What is the total number of developers who know Python?

A) 50

B) 85

C) 105

D) 115

Correct Answer: C) 105

Q27. Which of the following terms replaces the ‘?’ in the given series 121, 130, 148, ?, 256

A) 184

B) 166

C) 196

D) 175

Correct Answer: B) 166

Q28. Find the next term in the given series, 12, 6, 6, 9, 18, __ ?

A) 54

B) 36

C) 27

D) 45

Correct Answer: B) 36

Q29. Which of the following options replaces the ‘?’ in the given series 22, 23, 27, 36, ?, 77

A) 47

B) 52

C) 45

D) 54

Correct Answer: B) 52

Q30. Find the next term in the given series 8, 7, 12, 33, 128 __ ?

A) 512

B) 384

C) 540

D) 635

Correct Answer: A) 512

Q31. If ‘BEAR’ is written as ‘AFBQ’ and ‘LION’ is written as ‘KJPM’. How will ‘KITE’ be written?

A) JJUD

B) LJUF

C) FJSS

D) LUFJ

Correct Answer: B) LJUF

Q32. In a certain code language, ‘CANDLE’ is written as 13451214. How will ‘LIGHT’ be written in the same language?

A) 8792012

B) 7891220

C) 9812720

D) 1297820

Correct Answer: B) 7891220

Q33. 17 : 136 :: 27 : __ ?

A) 223

B) 269

C) 243

D) 257

Correct Answer: C) 243

Q34. CUBE : 36 :: CUBOID : __ ?

A) 74

B) 36

C) 48

D) 24

Correct Answer: C) 48

Q35. ___ rich should help ___ poor.

A) A, a

B) The, a

C) No article, the

D) The, the

Correct Answer: D) The, the

Q36. ___ juice in this jug is bitter, but ___ juice is generally good for health.

A) No article, no article

B) The, the

C) The, no article

D) No article, the

Correct Answer: C) The, no article

Q37. Identify the correct sentence(s) regarding the use of article “The”:

I. The higher you climb, the colder it gets.
II. He is the most hardworking of the two brothers.
III. The gold is a precious metal.

Choose the correct option:

A) Only I

B) I and II

C) I and III

D) All are correct

Correct Answer: B) I and II

Q38. Identify the correct use of articles with plural nouns:

I. Lions are fierce animals.
II. Lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide.
III. The lions we saw at the zoo were sleeping.

Choose the correct option:

A) Only II

B) Only I and III

C) Only II and III

D) All are correct

Correct Answer: D) All are correct

Q39. Select the most appropriate synonym of the word SAGACIOUS

A) Silly

B) Stupid

C) Sincere

D) Wise

Correct Answer: D) Wise

Q40. Select the most appropriate synonym of the word CHASTE

A) Immaculate

B) Wanton

C) Ornate

D) Debauched

Correct Answer: A) Immaculate

Q41. Select the most appropriate antonym of the word TACITURN

A) Prolix

B) Breviloquent

C) Traumatise

D) Reticent

Correct Answer: A) Prolix

Q42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the word IMPULSIVE

A) Impetuous

B) Whimsical

C) Reflective

D) Unpremeditated

Correct Answer: C) Reflective

Q43. He was acquitted __ the murder charge, but he was later charged __ theft and sentenced __ three years.

A) from, for, with

B) of, with, to

C) off, of, for

D) with, about, in

Correct Answer: B) of, with, to

Q44. The young man was absorbed __ his work and was oblivious __ the noise occurring __ him.

A) in, by, besides

B) with, of, beside

C) in, to, around

D) for, about, towards

Correct Answer: C) in, to, around

Q45. I cannot provide you __ a loan, as I am already beset __ financial difficulties and am answerable __ my creditors.

A) with, with, to

B) for, by, for

C) to, of, with

D) against, from, about

Correct Answer: A) with, with, to

Q46. While the professor was __ the middle __ a lecture, a student broke __ with a question.

A) at, for, out

B) in, of, in

C) within, of, through

D) during, of, up

Correct Answer: B) in, of, in

Q47. In the sentence, “Radha may visit the museum”, the word ‘may’ is a-

A) Main verb

B) Transitive verb

C) Gerund

D) Modal verb

Correct Answer: D) Modal verb

Q48. Identify the sentence where the verb “have” acts as a main verb rather than an auxiliary:

A) I have finished my lunch.

B) They have been working all day.

C) We have a meeting at ten.

D) Have they seen the movie yet?

Correct Answer: C) We have a meeting at ten.

Q49. Select the most appropriate option
“When Mrs. X was younger, she ___ run five miles without stopping.”

A) can

B) might

C) could

D) should

Correct Answer: C) could

Q50. Select the correct spelling for the word meaning “a person who organises and operates a business”:

A) Entreprenure

B) Entrepreneur

C) Entraprenuer

D) Entrepemeur

Correct Answer: B) Entrepreneur

Q51. Which spelling is correct for the word meaning “a small, exclusive group of people”?

A) Clike

B) Cleek

C) Clique

D) Cleaque

Correct Answer: C) Clique

Q52. Select the correct spelling for the word meaning “an expert judge in matters of taste”:

A) Connosseur

B) Connoiseur

C) Conoisseur

D) Connoisseur

Correct Answer: D) Connoisseur

Q53. The CEO’s mercurial temperament made it difficult for the staff to predict how he would react to the news.”

Choose the SYNONYM for mercurial in this context:

A) steadfast

B) dependable

C) capricious

D) lethargic

Correct Answer: C) capricious

Q54. Her laconic reply suggested that she was not interested in continuing the conversation.”

Choose the ANTONYM for laconic in this context:

A) condensed

B) garrulous

C) succinct

D) taciturn

Correct Answer: B) garrulous

Q55. While most of the team was exhausted, the captain remained resilient, pushing everyone to finish the final lap.”

Choose the ANTONYM for resilient in this context:

A) Friable

B) Tough

C) Pliant

D) Buoyant

Correct Answer: A) Friable

Read the following passage and based on your understanding, answer the following questions (56-59)

The traditional concept of forestry, focused on distant, government-protected reserves, is no longer sufficient to meet the dual challenges of environmental degradation and rural poverty. This has led to the emergence of “Social Forestry,” a practice that involves the management and protection of forests and the reforestation of barren lands with the specific purpose of helping environmental and social development. Unlike commercial forestry, which prioritises timber for industry, social forestry focuses on providing the “five F’s”: Fuel, Food, Fodder, Fibre, and Fertiliser.

The primary objective of social forestry is to reduce the mounting pressure on traditional forest areas. As the rural population grows, the demand for fuelwood and cattle fodder often forces villagers to exploit natural forests, leading to massive deforestation. By planting fast-growing trees on communal lands, along railway tracks, and on road embankments, social forestry creates a localised resource base. This not only preserves the ecological balance but also empowers local communities by directly involving them in decision-making and harvesting processes.

Furthermore, social forestry serves as a critical tool for soil conservation and carbon sequestration. In areas where agricultural land is prone to erosion, strategic tree planting acts as a windbreak and stabilises the topsoil. While the environmental benefits are clear, the success of these programs hinges on “people’s participation.” Without the active involvement of the local population in protecting saplings and managing resources, the long-term sustainability of these green patches remains in jeopardy.

Q56. What is the central distinction between commercial forestry and social forestry?

A) The type of soil required for planting.

B) The focus on local community needs versus industrial timber.

C) The involvement of government officials in management.

D) The geographical location of the forest reserves.

Correct Answer: B) The focus on local community needs versus industrial timber.

Q57. How does the author’s description of the “five F’s” serve the overall argument of the passage?

A) It provides a technical classification for botanical study.

B) It illustrates the shift from an industrial priority to a subsistence priority.

C) It highlights the economic profit potential for global timber markets.

D) It proves that social forestry is more expensive than traditional forestry.

Correct Answer: B) It illustrates the shift from an industrial priority to a subsistence priority.

Q58. According to the passage, how does social forestry protect traditional forests?

A) By imposing strict fines on villagers for entering reserves.

B) By replacing natural forests with industrial plantations.

C) By providing alternative, localised sources for fuel and fodder.

D) By creating a physical barrier between villages and forests.

Correct Answer: C) By providing alternative, localised sources for fuel and fodder.

Q59. What is identified as the most critical factor for the success of social forestry?

A) High-quality industrial equipment.

B) The speed at which the trees grow.

C) Active participation from the local population.

D) The amount of government funding allocated.

Correct Answer: C) Active participation from the local population.

Q60. Which of the following is an example of an Imperative sentence?

A) How wonderful the weather is today!

B) Did you finish the report on time?

C) Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving.

D) The sun rises in the east.

Correct Answer: C) Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving.

Q61. Convert the following Simple sentence into a Complex sentence without changing the meaning:

“Working hard, he passed the exam.”

A) He worked hard and passed the exam.

B) Because he worked hard, he passed the exam.

C) He worked hard; therefore, he passed the exam.

D) He passed the exam with hard work.

Correct Answer: B) Because he worked hard, he passed the exam.

Q62. In the sentence “The book that I bought yesterday is missing,” the underlined part is a/an:

A) Noun Clause

B) Adjective Clause

C) Adverbial Clause

D) Main Clause

Correct Answer: B) Adjective Clause

Q63. Which of the following sentences is structurally balanced and correct?

A) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and how well she communicates.

B) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and communication skills.

C) The candidate was praised for being intelligent, dedication, and hard work.

D) The candidate was praised for intelligence, dedicated, and working hard.

Correct Answer: B) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and communication skills.

Q64. ___ idea was it to leave the gate open all night?

A) Who’s

B) Whose

C) Whom

D) Which

Correct Answer: B) Whose

Q65. I have ___ friends who live in ___ Netherlands, but I haven’t visited them in years.

A) a few / no article

B) few / the

C) a few / the

D) little / the

Correct Answer: C) a few / the

Q66. You can take ___ of the two roads; both lead to the same village.

A) either

B) neither

C) every

D) any

Correct Answer: A) either

Q67. Which of the following statements about the Research Development and Innovation Fund, approved by the Union Cabinet, is/are correct?

I. The RDI Scheme incentivises private sector participation in R&D, with a total outlay of Rs.10 Lakh crore over six years.

II. It aims to finance transformative projects at higher levels of Technology Readiness Level (TRL) of 4 and above.

Which of the statement are correct.

A) I only

B) II only

C) Both I and II

D) Neither I Nor II

Correct Answer: B) II only

Q68. Consider the following statements about the mission POEM conducted by ISRO.

I. PS4-Orbital Experiment Module, designated as POEM, refers to the usage of the spent fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).

II. PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission is the first POEM Mission of the upcoming series.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) I only

B) II only

C) Both I and II

D) Neither I Nor II

Correct Answer: A) I only

Q69. Match the following:

Sports Awards

i. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award

ii. Arjuna Award Lifetime

iii. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy

iv. Arjuna Award


Awarded For

a. Presented for good performance and contributing towards the promotion of sports.

b. Given out for consistent good performance over a period of four years.

c. Awarded for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years.

d. Given to the university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.


Choose the correct Match:

A) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

B) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a

C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

Correct Answer: A) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

Q70. Jammu and Kashmir clinched their maiden Ranji Trophy title by defeating which opposition team?

A) Maharashtra

B) Saurashtra

C) Haryana

D) Karnataka

Correct Answer: B) Saurashtra

Q71. Given below are two statements:

I. Bhakti saint Shankaradeva addressed “Vaishnav Dharma” as “Sanatan Dharma”.

II. Shankaradeva’s main composition is Kirtanghosh.

Identify the correct statements-

A) I only

B) II only

C) Both I and II

D) Neither I Nor II

Correct Answer: C) Both I and II

Q72. Consider the following pairs:

I. Silappadikaram – Ilango Adigal
II. Manimegalai – Sittalai Sattanar
III. Buddhacharita – Ashvaghosha

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A) I only

B) I and II only

C) II and III only

D) I, II and III

Correct Answer: D) I, II and III

Q73. Arrange the following events in a correct chronological order.

I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution
II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement
III. Poona Pact
IV. Second Round Table Conference

A) I-II-III-IV

B) I-II-IV-III

C) II-I-IV-III

D) II-III-IV-I

Correct Answer: B) I-II-IV-III

Q74. The ‘Tripartite struggle’ for control over the city of Kannauj was fought between which dynasties?

A) Palas, Senas, Pushyabhutis

B) Palas, Pratiharas, Chalukyas

C) Palas, Pratiharas, Reddis

D) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas

Correct Answer: D) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas

Q75. Consider the following pairs:

I. Achabal Garden – Anantnag District
II. Avantipur Ruins – Poonch District
III. Parihaspore archaeological sites – Pulwama District

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A) I only

B) I and II only

C) II and III only

D) All of the above

Correct Answer: A) I only

Q76. Identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties.

I. Lohara Dynasty
II. Utpal Dynasty
III. Chak Dynasty
IV. Shah Mir Dynasty

A) I-III-IV-II

B) I-II-III-IV

C) II-I-III-IV

D) II-I-IV-III

Correct Answer: D) II-I-IV-III

Q77. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Description — Capitals

I. Judicial Capital of Arunachal Pradesh — Itanagar

II. Judicial Capital of Goa — Panaji

III. Judicial Capital of Madhya Pradesh — Jabalpur


Choose the correct match:

A) I only

B) I and II only

C) III only

D) I and III only

Correct Answer: C) III only

Q78. Chronologically arrange the following states based on the elevation to the status of a state under the Constitution of India.

I. Himachal Pradesh
II. Nagaland
III. Arunachal Pradesh
IV. Statehood to Sikkim

A) I-II-IV-III

B) II-I-III-IV

C) II-I-IV-III

D) I-II-III-IV

Correct Answer: A) I-II-IV-III

Q79. Which of the following are bacterial diseases?

I. Tuberculosis
II. Cholera
III. Hepatitis
IV. Leprosy
V. Measles
VI. Yellow Fever

Choose the correct option:

A) I, II and V only

B) I, II and IV only

C) I, II, IV and VI only

D) I, II, IV, V and VI only

Correct Answer: B) I, II and IV only

Q80. Consider the following statements about Laterite soils.

I. These are formed in areas with high temperatures and low rainfall.
II. These soils contain excess iron oxide, giving them a reddish colour.
III. Lime and silica get leached due to atmospheric conditions.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

A) I and II only

B) I only

C) II only

D) None of the above

Correct Answer: B) I only

Q81. Match the following.

Glaciers

i. Kangto Glacier

ii. Rimo Glacier

iii. Zemu Glacier

iv. Bara Shigri


States/UT

a. Ladakh

b. Arunachal Pradesh

c. Sikkim

d. Himachal Pradesh


Choose the correct match:

A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

C) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

Correct Answer: C) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

Q82. If a group of tourists moves from Jammu to Srinagar by road, then most likely they will cross which mountain pass?

A) Fotu La

B) Bara Lacha La

C) Rohtang Pass

D) Banihal Pass

Correct Answer: D) Banihal Pass

Q83. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

I. Bagh-e-Bahu — Tawi River

II. Nagin Lake — Jhelum River

III. Sashar Kangri — Nubra River


Choose the correct match:

A) I only

B) I and III only

C) I and II only

D) I, II and III

Correct Answer: D) I, II and III

Q84. Arrange the following processes in a correct sequence.

I. Scouring

II. Sorting

III. Shearing

IV. Rolling

V. Cleaning


Choose the correct option:

A) I-III-II-IV-V

B) I-III-II-V-IV

C) III-I-II-V-IV

D) III-I-II-IV-V

Correct Answer: C) III-I-II-V-IV

Q85. What are the by-products of anaerobic respiration?

I. Alcohol

II. Carbon dioxide

III. Water

IV. Energy

V. Lactic Acid


Choose the correct option:

A) All of the above

B) I, III, IV and V only

C) I, II and V only

D) I, II, IV and V only

Correct Answer: D) I, II, IV and V only

Q86. Consider the following statements.

I. Generally, metal oxides are acidic in nature.
II. Generally, non-metal oxides are basic in nature.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

A) I only

B) II only

C) Both I and II

D) Neither I Nor II

Correct Answer: C) Both I and II

Q87. Match the following :

Fish Culture

i. Surface Feeders

ii. Column Feeders

iii. Bottom Feeders


Example

a. Silver Carp

b. Grass Carp

c. Common Carp


Choose the correct match:

A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

B) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c

Correct Answer: C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

Q88. In the context of a concave mirror, if an object is placed at the focus, then-

I. The image will be formed at infinity.

II. The size of the image formed will be highly enlarged.

III. The nature of the image will be virtual and erect.


Which of the above statements stands true?

A) I only

B) I and II only

C) II and III only

D) I, II and III

Correct Answer: B) I and II only

Q89. Which of the following National Parks encompasses the catchment area of Kiber, Nanth, and Kiyar Nallas, all of which drain south-west into the Marwah river, locally called Mariv Sudir?

A) Dachigam National Park

B) Kishtwar National Park

C) Kazinag National Park

D) Salim Ali National Park

Correct Answer: B) Kishtwar National Park

Q90. Which tributary of the river Jhelum originates from Lolab Valley in north south direction and joins the waters of the outfall channel of river Jhelum about 6.5 Km. downstream of Sopore town.

A) Doodhganga

B) Pohru

C) Lidder

D) Rambiara

Correct Answer: B) Pohru

Q91. In a national competitive examination, 35% of the total candidates were girls. The results revealed the following:

• 75% of the boys passed the exam.

• 80% of the girls passed the exam.

• Among all the candidates who passed, 20% were awarded a merit scholarship.

• Among all the candidates who failed, 10% were eligible to apply for secondary “recovery” test.


If the number of candidates who were awarded a scholarship exceeds the number of candidates eligible for the recovery test by 2,605, what was the total number of candidates who appeared for the exam?


A) 15,000

B) 18,500

C) 20,000

D) 22,500

Correct Answer: C) 20,000

Q92. A shopkeeper marks the price of an item 40% above the cost price. He then gives two successive discounts of 10% and 5% on the marked price. If the shopkeeper makes a profit of Rs.492.5, find the cost price of the item.

A) Rs.2,000

B) Rs.2,100

C) Rs.2,500

D) Rs.2,600

Correct Answer: C) Rs.2,500

Q93. A gadget was sold for Rs. 522 after a 10% discount and then a 10% sales tax was applied on the discounted price. What was the original price of the gadget? (Round to nearest ten)

A) Rs. 495

B) Rs. 527

C) Rs. 539

D) Rs. 548

Correct Answer: B) Rs. 527

Q94. A storekeeper gives 20% discount on an item and then adds 12% sales tax on the discounted price. If the original price of the item is Rs 500, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) The discounted price is Rs. 400.

B) The sales tax on the discounted price is Rs. 48.

C) The final price the customer pays is Rs. 450.

D) The final price is less than the original price.

Correct Answer: C) The final price the customer pays is Rs. 450.

Q95. The average score of 10 students in a class is 72. One student scored 90 marks, and another scored 30 marks less than the first. If these two students are removed, what is the new average of the remaining students?

A) 71.2

B) 72.5

C) 73.4

D) 74.6

Correct Answer: B) 72.5

Q96. The average of 12 students in a class is 68. Later, it was found that one student’s score was incorrectly recorded as 72 instead of 96. What is the correct average of the class?

A) 70

B) 71.33

C) 72.5

D) 73.4

Correct Answer: A) 70

Q97. The average score of 20 students in a class is 75. It is later found that 5 students had been absent. In a re-examination, 4 of them scored 85 each. After including the marks of all 5 students, the overall average becomes 77. Determine the marks scored by the fifth student.

A) 80

B) 85

C) 87

D) 89

Correct Answer: D) 89

Q98. The average score of a group of n students in a mathematics competition is 64. A series of adjustments is made to the data. The top 25% of students (by score) are removed from the data set. Their average score was 80. A new group of 10 students joins the remaining group. This new group has an average score of 40. After these changes, it was discovered that a score belonging to one of the original remaining students was misrecorded as 100 instead of 80. After all departures, additions, and corrections, the final average score of the group is exactly 50. What was the original number of students (n)?

A) 36

B) 40

C) 44

D) 48

Correct Answer: B) 40

Q99. A, B, and C can complete a complex engineering project in 25 days working together. The ratio of their individual efficiencies is 4 : 3 : 5 respectively. The project begins with all three working together. However, the following events occur:

After 5 days, A leaves the project. To compensate for A’s departure, B increases his efficiency 33.3%, while C continues to work at his original efficiency. C leaves d days before the completion of project. The entire project is completed in exactly 35 days. What is the value of d?

A) 4

B) 5

C) 6

D) 8

Correct Answer: B) 5

Q100. A contractor assigns a task to two workers, A and B. Worker A can complete the work in x days, while worker B takes 5 days more than A. Working together, they can finish the task in 6 days. Find the value of x.

A) 12

B) 8

C) 10

D) 6

Correct Answer: C) 10

Q101. The speed of a car travelling from city A to city B was recorded as 60 km/h, and the journey time was noted as 5 hours. However, the actual speed was 50 km/h. Calculate the real time taken for the trip.

A) 4.5 hours

B) 6 hours

C) 5.5 hours

D) 5 hours

Correct Answer: B) 6 hours

Q102. A train covers a distance S at a speed U. If its speed is increased by 10 km/h, the travel time reduces by 2 hours, and if increased by 20 km/h, the time reduces by 3 hours. Find the distance S.

A) 60 km

B) 90 km

C) 120 km

D) 150 km

Correct Answer: D) 150 km

Q103. Match the mathematical descriptions (List-A) with their corresponding ratios (List-B):

List-A

i. Sub-duplicate ratio of 25:36

ii. Duplicate ratio of 3:4

iii. Reciprocal ratio of 5:7

iv. Compound ratio of 2:3 and 9:4


List-B

a. 9:16

b. 3:2

c. 5:6

d. 7:5


Choose the correct match:

A) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

B) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

Correct Answer: D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

Q104. If a:b = c:d, which of the following is correct using Componendo and Dividendo?

A) (a+b):(a-b) = (c+d):(c-d)

B) (a-b):(a+b) = (c+d):(c-d)

C) (a+c):(b+d) = (a-c):(b-d)

D) (a+b):c = (b+d):a

Correct Answer: A) (a+b):(a-b) = (c+d):(c-d)

Q105. A high-end jeweller manufactures gold bars where the price of a bar is directly proportional to the square of its weight. During transit, a bar of weight 5 units and worth Rs. 25,000 accidentally breaks into two pieces with weights in the ratio 2:3. What is the total reduction in the value of the gold due to this breakage?

A) Rs. 5,000

B) Rs. 12,000

C) Rs. 13,000

D) Rs. 14,000

Correct Answer: B) Rs. 12,000

Q106. If x/a = y/b = z/c = k, then find the value of: (bx + cy + az)/k

A) 0

B) abc

C) a + b + c

D) ab + bc + ac

Correct Answer: D) ab + bc + ac

Q107. Match the scenarios in List-I with the correct “Present Age of the Older Person” in List-II.

List-I

P. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the father’s age at that time.

Q. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son.

R. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 3:4. The sum of their ages is 28.

S. 10 years ago, a father was 4 times as old as his son. 2 years hence, he will be twice as old as his son.


List-II

1) 16 years

2) 36 years

3) 46 years

4) 34 years


Choose the correct match:

A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Correct Answer: C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Q108. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6:5. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11:10. Based on this information, identify the single correct statement from the list below:

A) Sagar is currently 18 years old

B) Sum of their current ages is 32 years

C) Six years ago, Kunal was 12 years old

D) 2 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5:4

Correct Answer: D) 2 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5:4

Q109. An HR department is auditing the ages of its 5-member executive board A, B, C, D, and E, to comply with a “balanced experience” policy. The average age of the board members is 25 years. Member D (age 30) quits and is replaced by Member F. The new average age becomes 24 years.

Additionally, Member B is 5 years younger than Member C. Member A is 2 years older than Member F. Member E and Member B have same age.

What is the current age of Member E?

A) 20 years

B) 21 years

C) 25 years

D) 27 years

Correct Answer: C) 25 years

Q110. The present age of a man is equal to the square of his son’s age. One year ago, the man’s age was exactly eight times the age of his son. Two years hence, the sum of their ages will be 6 more than six times the son’s age at that time. If the son’s present age is ‘x’, which of the following represents the man’s present age?

A) 25 years

B) 36 years

C) 49 years

D) 64 years

Correct Answer: B) 36 years

Q111. A coin is tossed 5 times. Each head contributes +1 and each tail contributes -1. What is the probability that the total sum is exactly +1?

A) 5/16

B) 5/32

C) 10/16

D) 2/3

Correct Answer: A) 5/16

Q112. A die is thrown 3 times. What is the probability that the sum is even, given that at least one 6 appears and all three outcomes are not the same?

A) 1/2

B) 3/5

C) 4/7

D) 5/9

Correct Answer: C) 4/7

Q113. A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue, and 3 green balls. Three balls are drawn without replacement. What is the probability that exactly two balls are of the same colour and one is different?

A) 18/20

B) 13/45

C) 30/45

D) 13/20

Correct Answer: D) 13/20

Q114. Two numbers are chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} without replacement. What is the probability that their sum is prime?

A) 1/3

B) 2/5

C) 7/15

D) 8/15

Correct Answer: D) 8/15

Q115. A florist is preparing for a large event and has 200 roses and 180 orchids. She wants to create the maximum possible number of identical bouquets such that every bouquet has the same number of roses and orchids, and no flowers are left over. How many roses will be present in each bouquet?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 9

D) 18

Correct Answer: A) 10

Q116. Identify the single correct statement regarding the properties of HCF and LCM:

A) If the product of two numbers is 2028 and their HCF is 13, there are exactly 2 such pairs of numbers possible

B) The HCF of any two numbers always divides their LCM

C) If the HCF of two numbers is 8, then 60 can never be their LCM

D) All of the above statements are correct

Correct Answer: D) All of the above statements are correct

Q117. The LCM of two expressions is 3x³ + 18x² + 30x + 12, and their HCF is x+2. One of the expressions is x+2. What is the sum of the coefficients (a,b), if the other expression can be represented as k(x² + ax + b)?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

Correct Answer: B) 4

Q118. The LCM of two numbers is 180, and their HCF is 6. One of the numbers is 18 and the other number can be written in the form 6 × k. What is the value of k?

A) k = 6

B) k = 8

C) k = 10

D) k = 12

Correct Answer: C) k = 10

Q119. A solid metallic sphere of radius R is melted and recast into n identical small solid spheres of radius r. Let S be the surface area of the original large sphere and s be the sum of the surface areas of all n small spheres. Identify the single correct relation between s and S:

A) s = S

B) s = n¹/³S

C) s = n²/³S

D) s = nS

Correct Answer: C) s = n²/³S

Q120. A wooden toy is shaped like a rocket with a cone mounted on a cylinder. The total height of the rocket is 26 cm, while the height of the conical part is 8 cm. The base of the conical portion has a diameter of 12 cm, while the base diameter of the cylindrical portion is 6 cm. The conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the orange-painted area?

A) The orange area is simply the Curved Surface Area (CSA) of the cone

B) The orange area is the sum of the CSA of the cone and the area of the base of the cone

C) The orange area is calculated as (CSA of cone) + (Base area of cone – Base area of cylinder)

D) The orange area is calculated as (CSA of cone) + (CSA of cylinder)

Correct Answer: C) The orange area is calculated as (CSA of cone) + (Base area of cone – Base area of cylinder)

JKSSB Social Forestry Worker Exam Analysis 2026

Section Difficulty Level
Reasoning Easy to Moderate
Current Affairs Moderate
Computer Awareness Easy
Forestry & Environment Moderate
Overall Moderate

📢 Did You Attempt This Exam?

Comment below:

  • ✅ Your Expected Score
  • ✅ Which Section Was Difficult?
  • ✅ Expected Cut Off According to You
  • ✅ Was the Paper Easy or Tough?

If you want the PDF of this fully solved paper, simply comment “PDF” below 👇

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top