Fully Solved JKPSC 10+2 Lecturer EVS Question Paper with Answers

JKPSC 10+2 Lecturer EVS Answer Key – Complete Solution
This post provides the official-style Answer Key for the JKPSC 10+2 Lecturer EVS Exam (2025). All 100 questions from the paper have been included here along with their correct answers in a click-to-reveal format. Candidates who appeared in the exam can verify their responses and calculate their expected scores.
📘 Check All 100 Questions with Verified Answers – Match Your Performance Now!

Today, JKPSC has conducted the 10+2 Lecturer Question Paper for EVS. Here is the Fully Solved JKPSC 10+2 Lecturer Question Paper with Answer. The Question Paper that i have uploaded here is the Set-A. You might have different sets with you, but the question remains the same.

Q1Which of the following is not a primary precursor of photochemical smog?
A) NOx
B) Sunlight
C) O3
D) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — O₃ (Ozone). Ozone is a secondary product of photochemical smog, not a primary precursor.
Q2Which of the following depicts the area under the visible portion of the extraterrestrial solar spectrum curve?
A) 30-37%
B) 20-27%
C) 40-47%
D) 50-57%
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — 40–47%. The visible band represents roughly ~40–47% of the solar energy in the extraterrestrial spectrum.
Q3Consider the following Statements:
Assertion (A): Biosphere comprises all the living organisms on Earth and the physical environment to which these life forms interact.
Reason (R): The biosphere relies heavily on the hydrospheric component, as water is essential for all biological processes on Earth.
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (R) is true, but (A) is false
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Both true, and R explains A.
Q4Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Continental crust is composed of granitic rocks
B) Earth’s core is predominantly composed of Iron and Nickel
C) Oceanic crust is composed of basaltic rocks
D) Silicon is the most abundant element in Earth’s crust
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Oxygen, not Silicon, is the most abundant element in Earth’s crust.
Q5Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) Macro landform – Mountains
B) Endogenic forces – Seismic activity
C) Meso landforms – Oceanic basins
D) Exogenic forces – Volcanic eruption
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Macro landform: Mountains.
Q6 Consider the following discontinuities in Earth’s interior:
I. Gutenberg Discontinuity
II. Conrad discontinuity
III. Lehman discontinuity
IV. Mohorovicic discontinuity
In which of the following options are they arranged in the correct order, ascending from the core to the crust?
A) III, I, IV, II
B) II, III, I, IV
C) I, II, IV, III
D) IV, I, III, II
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — III (Lehmann), I (Gutenberg), IV (Moho), II (Conrad).
Explanation: Lehmann (inner core–outer core), Gutenberg (core–mantle), Moho (mantle–crust), Conrad (within crust).
Q7Normal lapse rate or environmental lapse rate in the troposphere is –
A) Increase in temperature by 9.8°C with an increase in height by one kilometer
B) Decrease in temperature by 9.8°C with an increase in height by one kilometer
C) Increase in temperature by 6.5°C with an increase in height by one kilometer
D) Decrease in temperature by 6.5°C with an increase in height by one kilometer
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Decrease by 6.5°C per km.
Q8Which of the following is incorrect regarding a solar pond?
A) Butyl rubber can be used as a liner at the bottom
B) The storage zone at the bottom has the lowest salinity
C) Magnesium chloride can be used to create a salt gradient
D) The non-convective zone acts as an insulator
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — The storage zone at the bottom has the highest salinity (not lowest).
Q9 Choose the correct option for the following matching problem in terms of different layers of the atmosphere and their composition/location/distinct feature:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) HomosphereIII) The main constituent gases are oxygen and nitrogen
Q) IonosphereII) Extends from 80 km to 640 km
R) StratosphereIV) More or less devoid of major weather phenomena
S) ExosphereI) Uppermost layer of the atmosphere
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(III), (Q)-(II), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
C) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — (P)-(III), (Q)-(II), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I).
Q10Which of the following methods of environmental valuation is not associated with the revealed preference method?
A) Travel cost method
B) Contingent valuation
C) Hedonic pricing
D) Market valuation
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Contingent valuation. It is a stated-preference method (survey-based), not revealed preference.
Q11In case of spontaneous changes in an isolated system, the change in entropy (ΔS) is
A) Zero
B) Negative
C) Positive
D) Indeterminate
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Positive.
Q12Which type of inversion is characterized by sinking and compression of large air masses…?
A) Radiation Inversion
B) Frontal Inversion
C) Valley Inversion
D) Subsidence Inversion
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Subsidence Inversion.
Q13 Which of the following is the correct option for the following matching problem related to the characteristics of different methodologies of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA):
Column (1) Column (2)
P) Ad hoc MethodIII) Intuitive approach for qualitative assessment
Q) Checklist MethodI) Highly structured and involves weighing/scaling
R) Battelle Environmental Evaluation SystemIV) Feedback loop system (water projects)
S) Matrix MethodII) 2D structure for interactions
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(III), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
C) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV), (S)-(II).
Q14Which of the following represents the actual amount of water vapor present in a given volume of air (in g/m³)?
A) Absolute Humidity
B) Humidity Capacity
C) Relative Humidity
D) Specific Humidity
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Absolute Humidity.
Q15 When was the Intergovernmental Conference on Environmental Education (UNESCO) that delivered the Tbilisi Declaration held?
A) 1987
B) 1978
C) 1988
D) 1977
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — 1977.
Explanation: The UNESCO Intergovernmental Conference on Environmental Education held in Tbilisi (Georgia) in 1977 laid the foundation for global environmental education.
Q16 Match the following spectral reflectance characteristics:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) VegetationIV) High absorption in visible, high reflectance in NIR
Q) WaterIII) High absorption across bands incl. NIR
R) SoilII) Moderate reflectance across visible/NIR
S) UrbanI) Distinct features due to materials
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV), (S)-(III)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
C) (P)-(III), (Q)-(II), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
D) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I).
Q17Which of the following is not estimated using land cover mapping in GIS/Remote Sensing?
A) Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
B) Total Biomass Accumulation (TBA)
C) Sea Surface Temperature (SST)
D) Leaf Area Index (LAI)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Sea Surface Temperature (SST).
Q18Mode value when Arithmetic Mean is 26.8 and Median is 27.9 for a moderately skewed distribution?
A) 30.1
B) 29.9
C) 31.1
D) 28.9
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — 30.1. (Mode ≈ 3×Median − 2×Mean = 3×27.9 − 2×26.8 = 30.1.)
Q19Which of the following Conventions’ Secretariat is hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?
A) UNCCD
B) Ramsar Convention
C) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
D) UNFCCC
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — CBD.
Q20Which of the following tests is suitable for the independence of attributes?
A) ANOVA
B) Student’s t-test
C) F-test
D) Chi-square test
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Chi-square test.
Q21Which of the following is a measure of the useful work that is obtained from a constant-pressure system?
A) Change in Enthalpy
B) Change in internal energy
C) Change in Entropy
D) Change in Gibbs free energy
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Change in Gibbs free energy.
Q22 Match the following chemistry-related terminologies:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) Complex IonIV) (Definition of complex ions)
Q) Diverse Ion EffectIII) (Effect on solubility)
R) Le Chatelier’s PrincipleI) (Equilibrium shift rule)
S) Ion Product of WaterII) (Kw constant)
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV), (S)-(III)
B) (P)-(III), (Q)-(II), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
C) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
D) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(II)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(II).
Q23Which condition of the carbonate system is responsible for the formation of calcareous water?
A) Open system
B) Source of solid carbonate
C) Closed system
D) No available source of solid carbonate
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Closed system.
Q24Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Solar wind & Earth’s magnetic field influence ions and give rise to Van Allen Belt
B) Aerosols of natural origin greater than 0.2µm are called Aitken particles
C) O₂ plays important role in troposphere, O₃ in stratosphere
D) Soot particles provide heterogeneous phases for catalyzing oxidation of SO₂
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Incorrect. Aitken particles are much smaller than 0.2 µm (they are small nucleation mode particles).
Q25Which of the following is responsible for the continuous cycle of ozone regeneration and destruction as per the Chapman Reaction?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen oxides
C) Chlorine oxides
D) Hydrogen oxides
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Oxygen.
Q26Which of the following is correct regarding water quality parameters and water pollution?
A) COD ≤ BOD
B) Acidic water from thermal pollution increases DO
C) Acid rain helps immobilize aluminum ions
D) Total concentration of Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ is hardness index
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — The total concentration of Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ is represented as the hardness index of water.
Q27Which of the following about biogeochemical cycles is correct?
A) Clostridium assists denitrification
B) The phosphorus cycle lacks an atmospheric phase
C) Major source of CO₂ in carbon cycle is only atmospheric CO₂
D) During sulfur cycle Thiobacillus oxidize H₂S under anaerobic conditions
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — The phosphorus cycle lacks an atmospheric phase.
Q28Which detector in Gas Chromatography is suitable for detecting organics?
A) Atomic Emission Detector
B) Flame Photometric Detector
C) Electron Capture Detector
D) Flame Ionization Detector
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Flame Ionization Detector (FID).
Q29Which gas is most preferably contained in a hollow cathode lamp of an AAS?
A) Nitrogen
B) Helium
C) Argon
D) Radon
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Answer: C — Argon.
Q30Which of the following species can interbreed, but cannot produce viable offspring?
A) Ecotype
B) Ecads
C) Ecocline
D) Ecospecies
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Answer: D — Ecospecies.
Q31Which assumption is NOT considered in the Lotka-Volterra model?
A) Populations are not allowed to diversify
B) The competition coefficient is variable
C) Carrying capacity is constant
D) Habitat is homogeneous
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Answer: B — The competition coefficient is variable (Lotka-Volterra assumes constant coefficients).
Q32Rate of storage of biomass in photosynthetic autotrophs exceeding respiration is called?
A) Gross Primary Productivity
B) Net Primary Productivity
C) Standing Crop
D) Standing State
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Net Primary Productivity (NPP).
Q33 Match the following contributors to Ecology with their concepts:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) HaeckelII) Coined the term Ecology
Q) TansleyIV) Ecosystem concept
R) ClementsI) Monoclimax theory
S) MobiusIII) Biocoenosis
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(III)
B) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
C) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(II), (R)-(I), (S)-(III)
D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — (P)-(II), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(III).
Q34Which of the following is an example of a lacustrine ecosystem?
A) River
B) Lake
C) Spring
D) Stream
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Lake.
Q35Which statements are true for ecological pyramids? I. Energy pyramids can never be inverted II. Pyramids of numbers overemphasize large organisms III. Pyramids of biomass overemphasize small organisms
A) II and III
B) Only I is true
C) I, II, and III
D) None
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Only I is true. Energy pyramids are never inverted.
Q36Which interaction is beneficial for both but non-obligatory?
A) Protocooperation
B) Mutualism
C) Intraspecific competition
D) Commensalism
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Answer: A — Protocooperation.
Q37Maximum per capita growth rate during exponential growth (no resistance) is called?
A) Gross reproductive rate
B) Net reproductive rate
C) Biotic potential
D) Carrying capacity
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Biotic potential.
Q38Which statement is incorrect?
A) Ecotone = transition zone
B) Realized niche characterized by biotic constraints
C) Keystone species occupy similar niche in different locations
D) Beta diversity = diversity between habitats
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Answer: C — Incorrect. Keystone species are defined by their strong ecological effect, not by occupying the same niche across locations.
Q39Biological phenomenon where neighbors are adversely affected by released biochemicals?
A) Mimicry
B) Invasion
C) Endemism
D) Allelopathy
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Answer: D — Allelopathy.
Q40Correct order of ecological succession stages from initial to final?
A) Ecesis, Competition, Nudation, Climax, Aggregation, Invasion
B) Nudation, Ecesis, Aggregation, Invasion, Competition, Climax
C) Nudation, Invasion, Ecesis, Aggregation, Competition, Climax
D) Invasion, Ecesis, Competition, Nudation, Aggregation, Climax
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Nudation → Invasion → Ecesis → Aggregation → Competition → Climax.
Q41Which critically endangered species of Jammu & Kashmir is conserved under the Species Recovery Programme of IDWH?
A) Great Indian Bustard
B) Dugong
C) Swamp Deer
D) Hangul
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Hangul (Kashmir stag).
Q42 Match the following biological terms:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) BiosensorIII) Electrochemical transducer
Q) BiofertilizerI) Azolla
R) BioremediationII) Composting
S) GM CropIV) Bt Cotton
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(III), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(III)
C) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(II), (R)-(I), (S)-(III)
D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV).
Q43Which comes under the affective domain of Environmental Literacy?
A) Environmental values
B) Intention to Action
C) Knowledge of natural systems
D) Involvement in responsible environmental behaviour
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Answer: A — Environmental values.
Q44 Match the following seismic wave characteristics:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) S-wavesIII) Transverse, don’t travel in liquid
Q) P-wavesIV) Longitudinal, fastest
R) AttenuationI) Reduction in amplitude with distance
S) DirectivityII) Variation in shaking with rupture direction
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
C) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(II).
Q45Which statements true in geological timescale? I. First dinosaurs appeared during Jurassic II. First shelled organisms in Cambrian III. Precambrian characterized by origin/evolution of life IV. Holocene = ‘Ice Age’
A) I and III
B) IV only
C) II, I, and IV
D) II and III
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — II and III.
Q46Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) Continental Drift Theory: Supercontinents
B) Mantle Convection: Heat from Earth’s core & radioactive decay
C) Isostatic Adjustments: Horizontal movement of lithosphere
D) Hotspots: Surface expression of mantle plumes
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Incorrect. Isostatic adjustments are mostly vertical (uplift/subsidence), not horizontal.
Q47Savanna Woodland is a feature of which climate?
A) Moist Subtropical
B) Dry mid-altitude
C) Wet-dry tropical
D) Dry subtropical
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Wet-dry tropical climate.
Q48Which component has the highest albedo?
A) Forest
B) Black pavement
C) Water
D) Snow and ice
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Snow and ice.
Q49Which is correctly stated?
A) El Niño = invasion of cold surface water
B) During La Niña, trade winds become stronger than normal
C) La Niña contributes more to Pacific hurricanes
D) El Niño causes frequent Atlantic hurricanes
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — During La Niña, trade winds become stronger than normal.
Q50Which of the following does NOT arise predominantly from the interplay of Pressure Gradient Force and Coriolis Force?
A) Geostrophic wind
B) Cyclones
C) Land and sea breezes
D) Trade winds
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Land and sea breezes (local thermal contrasts).
Q51What is the fundamental time unit in the Geomagnetic Polarity Time Scale (GPTS)?
A) Magnetometer
B) Chron
C) Paleomagnetism
D) Curie point
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Chron.
Q52Which landform is associated with karst geomorphology?
A) Zeugen
B) Eskers
C) Alluvial fans
D) Karren
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Karren.
Q53 Match the following geological structures:
Column (1) Column (2)
P) Strike-slip FaultIV) Horizontal displacement
Q) Dip-slip FaultIII) Vertical displacement
R) AnticlineII) Upward arch
S) SynclineI) Downward trough
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(II)
C) (P)-(I), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(III), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I).
Q54Which statements are true in weathering? I. Talus slope = piles of angular rocks II. Chemical weathering includes dissolution, hydrolysis, thermal expansion-contraction III. Exfoliation never relates to granite IV. Quartz prone to mechanical weathering
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) III and IV
D) I and IV
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — I and IV.
Q55Rate at which incoming solar energy arrives per unit area at top of atmosphere is called?
A) Solar insolation
B) Solar constant
C) Beam Radiation
D) Attenuation
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Answer: A — Solar insolation.
Q56Oil shale sedimentary rocks essentially contain?
A) Bitumen
B) Kerogen
C) Gasohol
D) Tar
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Kerogen.
Q57Heat energy released from complete combustion when water vapor condenses into liquid is included in?
A) LHV
B) HHV
C) Specific Heat Capacity
D) Latent Heat
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Higher Heating Value (HHV).
Q58Which doping creates p-type semiconductors in solar PV?
A) Boron
B) Phosphorus
C) Arsenic
D) Antimony
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Boron doping.
Q59Fraction of free-flow wind power that a rotor extracts is called?
A) Available wind power
B) Power coefficient
C) Power output of the rotor
D) Average wind power
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Power coefficient (Cp).
Q60Which does NOT belong to geothermal energy categories?
A) Hydrothermal
B) Geopressured
C) Chemothermal
D) Petrothermal
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Chemothermal (not a standard category).
Q61Which isotope of uranium is primarily used in nuclear fission reactors?
A) U-235
B) U-238
C) U-239
D) U-234
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — U-235.
Q62Thermochemical gasification of lignocellulosic biomass produces?
A) Bio oil
B) Biodiesel
C) Biogas
D) Syngas
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Syngas (CO + H₂).
Q63Threshold of hearing of the human ear is?
A) 20 Pascal
B) 10 Decibels
C) 20 micro pascals
D) 10 Hz
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — 20 micro pascals (20 µPa).
Q64Which is NOT a key principle of mufflers/silencers?
A) Absorption
B) Frictional resistance
C) Reflection
D) Destructive interference
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Frictional resistance (not a main principle).
Q65Which is a Dense Nonaqueous Phase Liquid (DNAPL) that sinks into groundwater?
A) Benzene
B) Carbon tetrachloride
C) p-Xylene
D) Toluene
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Carbon tetrachloride.
Q66Which soil horizon is the zone of eluviation?
A) O horizon
B) A horizon
C) B horizon
D) C horizon
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — A horizon (eluviation zone).
Q67 Which of the following is matched correctly with heavy metals and their sources in soil, respectively?
Heavy Metals Sources
P) Cu I) Leather tanning
Q) Al II) Coal combustion
R) As III) Bordeaux spray
S) Cr IV) Bauxite mining
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(II)
C) (P)-(I), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(III), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(II), (S)-(I).
✔ Cu → Bordeaux spray
✔ Al → Bauxite mining
✔ As → Coal combustion
✔ Cr → Leather tanning
Q68Which technique is NOT used to measure total coliform in water?
A) Maximum Probable Number (MPN)
B) Membrane filtration
C) Nephelometry
D) Multiple Tube Fermentation (MTF)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Nephelometry (measures turbidity).
Q69Which radioisotope is associated with the chemistry of organisms?
A) Strontium-90
B) Iodine-131
C) Thorium-232
D) Cesium-134
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Iodine-131 (biologically taken up in thyroid chemistry).
Q70Which biological secondary treatment is a suspended growth process?
A) Activated sludge
B) Rotating Biological Contactor
C) Trickling filters
D) Biological Aerated Filter
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Activated sludge (suspended growth).
Q71Which disease is caused by a bacterial pathogen?
A) Hepatitis
B) Cholera
C) Poliomyelitis
D) Amoebic dysentery
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Cholera (Vibrio cholerae).
Q72Which are criteria pollutants specified by NAAQS?
A) Carbon monoxide and Nitrogen dioxide
B) PM2.5, PM10, and Lead
C) Sulfur dioxide and Ozone
D) All of the above
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — All of the above.
Q73Which of the following is true?
A) Catalytic converter can only control HC & NOx, not CO
B) MTBE is used to enhance octane rating
C) Cyclone collectors >90% for sub-micron particles
D) Dry scrubbers offer higher SO₂ removal than wet scrubbers
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — MTBE is used as an octane enhancer.
Q74Consider the following Statements:
Assertion (A): Markets often fail to allocate environmental resources efficiently. Reason (R): There are undefined property rights for environmental resources.
A) Both true; (R) explains (A)
B) Both true; (R) does not explain (A)
C) A true, R false
D) R true, A false
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — Both true, and R explains A.
Q75Which is NOT associated with public goods?
A) Non-excludability
B) Rivalry
C) Free rider
D) Indivisibility
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Rivalry (public goods are non-rival).
Q76Which relates most to the Coase Theorem?
A) Assignment of property rights
B) Costly transaction
C) Unmeasurable damages
D) No externalities
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Answer: A — Assignment of property rights.
Q77Which is an example of a positive externality in environmental economics?
A) Waste disposal
B) Traffic congestion
C) Advancement in production process
D) Deforestation
Click Here for Answer
Answer: C — Advancement in production process (positive spillovers).
Q78One carbon credit is equivalent to?
A) 1 ton CO₂ reduction/removal
B) 10 tons
C) 100 tons
D) 100 kg
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — 1 ton CO₂ (1 tonne CO₂e).
Q79 Which of the following options is correctly matched for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and Targets?
SDGs Targets
P) SDG 2 I) Clean Water and Sanitation
Q) SDG 7 II) Zero Hunger
R) SDG 13 III) Clean Energy
S) SDG 6 IV) Climate Action
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(III)
C) (P)-(I), (Q)-(II), (R)-(IV), (S)-(III)
D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
Click Here for Answer
Answer: A — (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I).
✔ SDG 2 → Zero Hunger
✔ SDG 7 → Clean Energy
✔ SDG 13 → Climate Action
✔ SDG 6 → Clean Water and Sanitation
Q80Which product is NOT produced from valorization of CO₂ during CCUS?
A) Blue hydrogen
B) Green urea
C) Green ammonia
D) Natural gas
Click Here for Answer
Answer: D — Natural gas (not a CCUS-derived product).
Q81Which authority assesses and certifies the Eco-mark in India?
A) CPCB
B) BIS
C) MoEF
D) NEERI
Click Here for Answer
Answer: B — Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
Q82Which identifies important environmental issues and regulatory requirements during EIA?
A) Impact Prediction
B) Screening
C) Scoping
D) Impact Evaluation
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Answer: C — Scoping.
Q83Under EIA Notification 2006, which category requires mandatory environmental clearance and does NOT undergo screening?
A) Category A
B) Category B1
C) Category B2
D) All of the above
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Answer: A — Category A (central-level clearance).
Q84Which LCA method covers all stages (all inputs and outputs)?
A) Cradle-to-gate
B) Cradle-to-cradle
C) Gate-to-gate
D) Cradle-to-grave
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Answer: D — Cradle-to-grave (full life cycle).
Q85Which ISO series is associated with Environmental Management System (EMS)?
A) ISO 14040
B) ISO 14001
C) ISO 14020
D) ISO 14030
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Answer: B — ISO 14001.
Q86Which article of Indian Constitution includes environmental protection as a Fundamental Duty?
A) Article 49A
B) Article 48A
C) Article 51A
D) Article 53A
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Answer: C — Article 51A (specifically 51A(g)).
Q87Under Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, which of the following is considered domestic hazardous waste?
A) Metal
B) Wood
C) Plastic
D) Diapers
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Answer: D — Diapers (certain sanitary household wastes are managed specially).
Q88According to COP26 (as discussed at various summits), India’s target timeline for net-zero is?
A) By 2030
B) By 2050
C) By 2070
D) By 2040
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Answer: C — By 2070.
Q89 Match the following Environmental Conferences with their respective years:
Conference Year
P) Stockholm Conference I) 2002
Q) Rio (Earth Summit) II) 1992
R) Johannesburg Summit III) 2009
S) Copenhagen Summit (COP15) IV) 1972
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(II), (R)-(I), (S)-(III)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(II), (S)-(I)
C) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
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Answer: A — (P)-(IV), (Q)-(II), (R)-(I), (S)-(III).
✔ Stockholm → 1972
✔ Rio → 1992
✔ Johannesburg → 2002
✔ Copenhagen → 2009
Q90According to Plastic Waste Management Rules 2016, minimum thickness of plastic carry bags should be?
A) 40 microns
B) 50 microns
C) 60 microns
D) 30 microns
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Answer: B — 50 microns (commonly specified minimum thickness).
Q91Which is NOT considered for emission reduction under the Kyoto Protocol?
A) Nitrous Oxide
B) Methane
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Sulphur hexafluoride
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Answer: C — Carbon monoxide (CO is not one of the Kyoto greenhouse gases).
Q92Which scholar delivered the Preservation Theory in the ‘Land Ethics’ essay?
A) Ralph Waldo Emerson
B) James Lovelock
C) Aldo Leopold
D) Arne Naess
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Answer: C — Aldo Leopold.
Q93 Match the following schools of Environmental Ethics with their key features:
School Feature
P) Deep Ecology I) Ecosystem-centered value
Q) Anthropocentrism II) Intrinsic value of nature/all life
R) Biocentrism III) Humans as central moral concern
S) Ecocentrism IV) All living things have value
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(III), (Q)-(II), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
B) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(II)
C) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(II)
D) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(IV)
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Answer: D — (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(IV).
✔ Deep Ecology → Intrinsic value of all life
✔ Anthropocentrism → Humans central
✔ Biocentrism → Ecosystem-centered
✔ Ecocentrism → All living beings have value
Q94IUCN headquarters is located in which country?
A) Kenya
B) Switzerland
C) USA
D) Germany
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Answer: B — Switzerland (Gland).
Q95Which term refers to a private company’s voluntary sustainable actions?
A) Extended Producer Responsibility
B) Polluter Pays
C) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
D) Corporate Social Responsibility
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Answer: D — Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR).
Q96Which is NOT a phase of the Environmental Kuznets Curve?
A) Environmental quality improves with a fall in per capita income
B) Environmental quality improves with increase in per capita income
C) Initially falls then rises with increase in per capita income
D) Continuous deterioration with increase in per capita income
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Answer: A — Improving with a fall in income is not part of EKC.
Q97Which toxic substance was released during the Bhopal Gas Disaster (1984)?
A) Methyl hydrazine
B) Methyl thiocyanate
C) Methyl isothiocyanate
D) Methyl isocyanate
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Answer: D — Methyl isocyanate (MIC).
Q98Which nuclear disaster occurred in 1986?
A) Fukushima Daiichi
B) Hiroshima/Nagasaki
C) Chernobyl
D) Three Mile Island
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Answer: C — Chernobyl (1986).
Q99Which environmental movement took place in 1983 to protect Kalase forest in Western Ghats?
A) Chipko Movement
B) Jangal Bachao Movement
C) Silent Valley Movement
D) Appiko Movement
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Answer: D — Appiko Movement (1983).
Q100 Match the following Wildlife Projects with their respective years of initiation:
Project Year
P) Project Tiger I) 2020
Q) Project Snow Leopard II) 1973
R) Project Elephant III) 2009
S) Indian Rhino Vision IV) 1992
Choose the correct option:
A) (P)-(IV), (Q)-(III), (R)-(I), (S)-(II)
B) (P)-(I), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(II)
C) (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I)
D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(II), (S)-(IV)
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Answer: C — (P)-(II), (Q)-(III), (R)-(IV), (S)-(I).
✔ Project Tiger → 1973
✔ Project Snow Leopard → 2009
✔ Project Elephant → 1992
✔ Indian Rhino Vision → 2020

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