Fully Solved JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper (General Studies) with Answer Key

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URGENT JKPSC UPDATE: KAS Prelims 2025 Answer Key

The Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Exam is concluded. Check the preliminary breakdown of the paper and answer key status below.

Exam Name CCE (KAS) Prelims
Papers GS Paper I & II (CSAT)
Difficulty Level Moderate to Tough (Expected)
Conducting Body JKPSC

Mode: Offline (OMR Based) • Negative Marking: 0.33 Marks per wrong answer.

Timeline: Official Key usually releases within 1 day. Unofficial key available below.

Note: This box contains details for the JKPSC KAS Prelims. Keep an eye on the JKPSC website for the official notification.

The wait is finally over. The JKPSC KAS Prelims 2025 has been conducted today. If you are one of the thousands of aspirants who appeared for this prestigious exam, you are likely searching for one thing right now: How did I perform?

Answering that question is exactly why we are here. In this post, we are providing the Fully Solved JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper along with the most accurate Answer Key. Whether you are looking to calculate your rough score, check the difficulty level of the sets (Set A, B, C, D), or understand the expected cut-off for the Mains examination, you are in the right place.

We understand the anxiety that follows the exam. Did you mark that Polity question correctly? Was the History section tougher than last year? Let’s dive deep into the analysis and get you the answers you need.

JKPSC KAS Prelims 2025: Exam Overview

The Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission (JKPSC) conducts the Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) in three stages. Today was the first and most crucial filter—the Preliminary stage.

The exam consisted of two papers:

  1. General Studies (Paper I): 100 Questions (200 Marks). This determines the merit list.
  2. General Studies (Paper II – CSAT): 100 Questions (200 Marks). This is qualifying in nature (you need 33% or 66 marks).

✔ JKPSC Update: Prelims Exam Concluded

Posted on: [CURRENT DATE]

The exam has been conducted successfully across J&K. We are currently compiling the GS Paper I and CSAT Paper II answers.

Exam Date 7th Dec, 2025 (Sunday)
Answer Key Status Live Updates Below

KAS Prelims Question Paper Analysis and Subject wise Distribution of Marks

PAPER ANALYSIS

JKPSC KAS Prelims — Mini Topic Analysis (63 Qs)

Source: Uploaded PDF (JKPSC JKCEE PRE 2025)

Total questions analysed: 63  |  Top topics: Polity, Current Affairs, History

Category Count %
Polity / Governance1828.6%
Current Affairs1219.0%
History1117.5%
Science & Tech69.5%
Art & Culture46.3%
Environment46.3%
Geography / Dev23.2%
J&K-specific23.2%
Total 63 100%

Difficulty: Easy ~14% | Medium ~76% | Hard ~10%

Fully Solved JKPSC KAS Prelims General Studies Question Paper (Paper-1)

We have procured the original question papers from students who just exited the exam hall.

You can view the Original question paper below.

1. What is the permissible limit of noise pollution, prescribed by CPCB during night time?
  • A) Less than 40 dB
  • B) 40-70 dB
  • C) 70-100 dB
  • D) More than 100 dB
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
2. Amount of destruction caused by an earthquake is measured by:
  • A) Richter Scale
  • B) Intensity Scale
  • C) Magnitude Scale
  • D) Mercalli Scale
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
(Note: Mercalli measures intensity/destruction; Richter measures magnitude/energy.)
3. What is the correct increasing order of Global Warming Potential of Following Green House Gases?
  • I. Methane
  • II. Fluorinated Gases
  • III. Carbon dioxide
  • IV. Nitrous Oxide
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • A) III, II, I, IV
  • B) II, I, III, IV
  • C) I, II, III, IV
  • D) III, I, IV, II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
4. Which of the following indicators are used to calculate the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)?
  • I. Infant mortality rate
  • II. Life expectancy at age one
  • III. Standard of living (income per capita)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I and II only
  • B) II and III only
  • C) III only
  • D) I, II and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
5. Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion (A): Currency depreciation always leads to an improvement in the trade balance.
  • Reason (R): The real exchange rate adjusts the nominal exchange rate for differences in Price levels (inflation) between countries.
Select the correct answer:
  • A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • C) A is true, but R is false
  • D) A is false, but R is true
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
6. Consider the following statements:
  • I. The Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM) of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) facilitates currency convertibility among member countries.
  • II. Under a flexible exchange rate system, the need for balance of payments adjustments through foreign exchange reserves is reduced.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
7. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, what target (in gigawatts) has been set for nuclear power capacity by the year 2047?
  • A) 30 GW (gigawatts)
  • B) 50 GW (gigawatts)
  • C) 100 GW (gigawatts)
  • D) 200 GW (gigawatts)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
8. Consider the following initiatives:
  • 1. PM SHRI
  • 2. STARS
  • 3. DIKSHA
  • 4. ULLAS
  • 5. PM POSHAN
Through how many of the above initiatives does the Government aim to achieve the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020?
  • A) Only two
  • B) Only three
  • C) Only four
  • D) All five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
9. Which of the following sub-schemes of the ‘Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan’ programme are being implemented to achieve the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?
  • I. NISHTHA
  • II. Vidya Pravesh
  • III. District Institutes of Education and Training (DIETS)
  • IV. Rani Laxmibai Balika Vidyalaya
Which of the above are correct:
  • A) I, II and III
  • B) I, II and IV
  • C) I, III, and IV
  • D) II, III and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
10. Match the following key deficit indicators with their respective values in percentage of GDP for the Financial Year 2025-26 as per the Union Budget of 2025-2026:
Deficit Indicators Budget Estimates (Financial Year 2025-26)
i. Primary Deficit a. 0.3 percent
ii. Effective Revenue Deficit b. 4.4 percent
iii. Revenue Deficit c. 0.8 percent
iv. Fiscal Deficit d. 1.5 percent
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
  • B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
  • C) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
  • D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
11. Which of the following are e-initiatives of the ‘Employees’ State Insurance Corporation’ (ESIC)?
  • I. E-Pehchan
  • II. E-Biz Platform
  • III. ABHA Number Creation
  • IV. UPI App for IPs
  • V. GIS based Maps
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) I, II, III and IV
  • B) I, II, III and V
  • C) II, III, and IV
  • D) III, IV and V
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
12. Which of the followings are the key pillars of health policy?
  • I. Preventive health care
  • II. Early detection of ailments
  • III. Free and low-cost treatment and medicines
  • IV. Availability of doctors in urban areas
  • V. Expansion of technology in health
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) I, II, III and IV
  • B) I, II, III and V
  • C) I, IV, and V
  • D) II, III, IV and V
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
13. Below mentioned countries are India’s top five trade partners in the Financial Year 2024-25. Choose the correct sequence of countries of India’s foreign trade in terms of values in decreasing order.
  • I. UAE
  • II. USA
  • III. China
  • IV. Russia
  • V. Saudi Arabia
Choose the correct order:
  • A) I, II, III, IV, V
  • B) II, III, I, IV, V
  • C) III, IV, V, I, II
  • D) IV, I, II, V, III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
14. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘PM e-Bus Sewa’ scheme:
  • I. PM e-Bus Sewa is a centrally sponsored scheme initiated in 2023.
  • II. It aims to augment bus operations in urban areas with central assistance of 20,000 crore for developing 10,000 electric buses.
  • III. More than 169 cities with population size between 3 lakh and 40 lakh, as per census 2011, are eligible to participate under the scheme.
  • IV. The scheme shall remain valid up to March 2047.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  • A) I, II and III only
  • B) I, II and IV only
  • C) I, III and IV only
  • D) II, III and IV only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
15. Match the following Countries with the year in which these countries crossed the pre-pandemic GDP (constant prices, national currency):
Countries Year
1. India i. 2020
2. China ii. 2021
3. Japan iii. 2022
4. United Kingdom iv. 2023
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
  • B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
  • C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
  • D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
16. Match the following ‘Sustainable Development Goals’ (SDGs):
Goals Name of Goals
1. Goal 4 i. Gender Equality
2. Goal 5 ii. Quality Education
3. Goal 6 iii. Reduced Inequality
4. Goal 10 iv. Clean Water and Sanitation
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
  • B) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
  • C) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
  • D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
17. How many houses have been completed under ‘Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin’ (PMAY-G) from 2016 till January 2025?
  • A) 1.69 crore
  • B) 2.69 crore
  • C) 3.69 crore
  • D) 4.69 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
18. Which of the following pairs of Chairperson and their respective Finance Commission are correctly matched?
  • I. 10th Finance Commission – KC Pant
  • II. 12th Finance Commission – Dr. C Rangarajan
  • III. 13th Finance Commission – Vijay Kelkar
  • IV. 14th Finance Commission – Dr. Y V Reddy
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I, II, and III only
  • C) I, III, and IV only
  • D) I, II, III, and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
19. Which one of the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India for the first time?
  • A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
  • B) Indian Councils Act, 1909
  • C) Government of India Act, 1919
  • D) Government of India Act, 1935
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
20. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
  • I. Education – Concurrent List
  • II. Income Tax – Concurrent List
  • III. Public Health – State List
  • IV. Census – Union List
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I, II, and III only
  • C) I, III, and IV only
  • D) II, III, and IV only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
21. Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India:
  • Statement-I: It is not mandatory for the Supreme Court to provide its opinion on a Presidential reference.
  • Statement-II: The opinion given by the Supreme Court is binding in nature.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
22. Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of the State:
  • I. He/She is appointed by the Governor of a State
  • II. He/She holds office during the pleasure of the Governor
  • III. His/Her remuneration is determined by the State Legislature
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
  • A) I
  • B) II
  • C) III
  • D) None of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
23. Consider the following functionaries:
  • I. Chief Justice of India
  • II. Cabinet Secretary
  • III. Chief Election Commissioner
  • IV. Union Cabinet Ministers
The correct sequence in the order of precedence is:
  • A) II, III, I, IV
  • B) II, I, III, IV
  • C) I, II, III, IV
  • D) I, IV, III, II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
24. With reference to the jurisdiction of the Lokpal, consider the following public authorities:
  • I. Prime Minister
  • II. Union Ministers
  • III. Members of Parliament
  • IV. Official of the Central Government
Which of the above come under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal?
  • A) I only
  • B) I and III only
  • C) II and IV only
  • D) I, II and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
(Note: Officials and MPs also fall under Lokpal, making ‘All of the above’ typically correct, but option structure in exams varies.)
25. When a Money Bill is presented to the President of India for her assent, which of the following powers does she exercise?
  • I. She may give her assent to the bill
  • II. She may withhold her assent to the bill
  • III. She may return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I and III only
  • C) I only
  • D) I, II and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
26. Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion (A): The Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister.
  • Reason (R): The NITI Aayog was created by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
The correct answer is:
  • A) A and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B) A and R are both correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
  • D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
27. Which of the following authorities’ salaries, allowances, and pensions are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
  • I. Judges of the Supreme Court
  • II. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • III. Chief Election Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I and III only
  • C) III only
  • D) I, II and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
28. Consider the following pairs regarding veto powers of the President of India:
Veto Powers of the President Implication
1. Absolute Veto President withholds his/her assent to a bill passed by the Parliament
2. Suspensive Veto President returns a bill (other than a money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament
3. Pocket Veto President neither gives assent nor returns the bill when Parliament is not in session
4. Line-Item Veto President can reject specific provisions or items in a bill (mainly financial bills)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • A) Only one
  • B) Only two
  • C) Only three
  • D) All four
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
29. Through which Constitutional Amendment was sub-clause (1A) added to Article 75, stating that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People?
  • A) 91st Amendment
  • B) 86th Amendment
  • C) 89th Amendment
  • D) 95th Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
30. Consider the following statements regarding 37th constitutional amendment:
  • I. Article 239A was added by 37th Amendment.
  • II. Article 239A has been made applicable to Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
Choose the correct Statement/s:
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II are correct
  • D) None of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
31. Who among the following served as Vice-President of India?
  • I. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
  • II. Dr. Zakir Hussain
  • III. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
  • IV. Giani Zail Singh
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) I
  • B) I and II
  • C) I, II and III
  • D) I, II, III and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
32. Arrange the following states in descending order according to the number of times President’s Rule has been imposed:
  • I. Uttar Pradesh
  • II. Tamil Nadu
  • III. Madhya Pradesh
  • IV. Karnataka
Select the correct answer:
  • A) I-IV-II-III
  • B) I-II-IV-III
  • C) IV-I-III-II
  • D) II-III-IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
33. Arrange the following states in the ascending order of their representation (seats) in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha):
  • I. West Bengal
  • II. Rajasthan
  • III. Punjab
  • IV. Karnataka
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) III-II-IV-I
  • B) III-IV-II-I
  • C) IV-I-II-III
  • D) II-III-IV-I
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
JKPSC KAS General Studies Paper Difficulty Level
34. Which of the following pairs of states and their formation dates is correctly matched?
  • I. Arunachal Pradesh – 1986
  • II. Telangana – 2013
  • III. Goa – 1986
  • IV. Uttarakhand – 2001
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) Only I
  • B) I and III
  • C) II and IV
  • D) None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: The State of Arunachal Pradesh Act was passed in 1986, though it officially became a state in 1987. Uttarakhand was 2000, Telangana 2014.)
35. How many national parties participated in the first Lok Sabha election of India held in 1952?
  • A) 12
  • B) 13
  • C) 14
  • D) 15
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
36. In which Article of the Indian Constitution is the provision related to the audit of Panchayat accounts mentioned?
  • A) 243 J
  • B) 243 I
  • C) 243 L
  • D) 243 K
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
37. Which of the following pairs accurately represent dominant castes in state politics in India?
  • I. Lingayats: Karnataka
  • II. Patidars: Gujarat
  • III. Vokkalingas: Tamil Nadu
  • IV. Kammas: Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer:
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I, II, and III only
  • C) I, II, and IV only
  • D) I, III, and IV only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
(Note: Vokkaligas are a dominant caste in Karnataka, not Tamil Nadu.)
38. Consider the following statements regarding the Blue Flag Certification:
  • I. It is an internationally recognised eco-label awarded by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) in Denmark.
  • II. The Chandrabhaga Beach in Odisha was the first in India to receive the Blue Flag Certification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
39. Which of the following traditional cultivation techniques practiced by the Kondh tribes is under threat due to the monocropping of Eucalyptus?
  • A) Jhum cultivation
  • B) Dongar cultivation
  • C) Poonam Krishi cultivation
  • D) Apatani wet rice cultivation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: Specifically refers to the Dongria Kondh tribe’s practices.)
40. Recently, the Union Cabinet granted Classical Language Status to five languages. Consider the following statements regarding the revised criteria for a language to be conferred with Classical status:
  • I. High antiquity of its early texts or recorded history, spanning at least 1500-2000 years.
  • II. A body of ancient literature/texts considered a valuable heritage by successive generations of speakers.
  • III. The literary tradition should be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
  • IV. The language must be currently spoken by more than 50 million people.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A) I, II and III only
  • B) II and IV only
  • C) I, III and IV only
  • D) All four statements
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
41. Consider the following institutions and their corresponding domains under India’s National Quantum Mission (NQM):
Institution Domain
1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru i. Quantum Computing Hub
2. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras ii. Quantum Communication Hub
3. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bombay iii. Quantum Materials and Devices Hub
4. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Delhi iv. Quantum Sensing and Metrology Hub
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
  • A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
  • B) 1-i, 2-iv…
  • C) 1-ii, 2-i…
  • D) 1-iii, 2-iv…
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
42. Consider the following statements with reference to the “Gaganyaan Mission” of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):
  • I. The mission aims to place astronauts in a geostationary orbit.
  • II. It comprises two uncrewed flights followed by one crewed mission.
  • III. The human-rated launch vehicle for the mission is derived from LVM3.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
  • A) I only
  • B) I and II only
  • C) II and III only
  • D) I and III only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: The mission targets Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not Geostationary.)
43. Consider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus (NiV):
  • 1. It is an orthopoxvirus.
  • 2. NiV is a zoonotic disease transmitted from animals to humans.
  • 3. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is the preferred laboratory test for NiV.
  • 4. The incubation period ranges from 4 to 14 days on average.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • A) Only one
  • B) Only two
  • C) Only three
  • D) All four
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
(Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.)
44. With reference to India’s international humanitarian missions, consider the following pairs:
Operations Purpose
1. Operation Dost Earthquake relief in Turkey and Syria
2. Operation Ganga Evacuation of Indians from the Ukraine Conflict
3. Operation Kaveri Evacuation of Indians from Sudan
4. Operation Ajay Rescue from the Israel-Hamas conflict
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • A) 1 pair
  • B) 2 pairs
  • C) 3 pairs
  • D) 4 pairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
45. Consider the following technologies:
  • I. Natural Language Processing
  • II. Quantum Computing
  • III. Audio Processing
  • IV. Computer Vision
Which of the above are supported by Hugging Face’s AI model hub?
  • A) I, II and III
  • B) I, II and IV
  • C) I, III and IV
  • D) I, II, III and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
46. Match the following:
Global Awards to Prime Minister Narendra Modi By Countries
1. The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour i) Russia
2. The Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu ii) Greece
3. The Order of the Holy Apostle Andrew the First iii) France
4. The Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour iv) Papua New Guinea
Match the correct option:
  • A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
  • B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
  • C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
  • D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
47. As per the Constitution of India, the State can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, on which of the following grounds?
  • I. Sovereignty and integrity of India
  • II. Public Order
  • III. Contempt of Court
  • IV. Defamation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A) I and III only
  • B) I, II and IV only
  • C) II and IV only
  • D) I, II, III and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
48. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) has at present:
  • A) 10 member states, 14 observer states and 2 dialogue partners
  • B) 14 member states, 2 observer states and 10 dialogue partners
  • C) 10 member states, 10 observer states and 10 dialogue partners
  • D) 10 member states, 2 observer states and 14 dialogue partners
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
49. The Jammu and Kashmir Energy Development Agency’s mission and vision are
  • I. to lead the energy transition.
  • II. to speed up the transition to partial renewable energy
  • III. to build a culture of excellence.
  • IV. to maintain the highest standards of quality and sustainability
Choose the correct option:
  • A) Only I, II & III are correct
  • B) Only II, III & IV are correct
  • C) Only I, III & IV are correct
  • D) Only I, II & IV are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
(Note: Statement II is incorrect due to the word “partial”.)
50. Match the following:
Proponents of Indian Music Indian Gharanas
1. Channulal Mishra i) Agra Gharana
2. Krishnarao Shankar Pandit ii) Kirana Gharana
3. Bhimsen Joshi iii) Gwalior Gharana
4. Pandit Yashpal iv) Banaras Gharana
Match the correct option:
  • A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
  • B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
  • C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
  • D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
51. Mirabai Chanu:
  • I. won a silver medal in the IWF Senior World Weightlifting Championship 2025
  • II. won a gold medal in the IWF Senior World Weightlifting Championship 2017
  • III. won a silver medal in the IWF Senior World Weightlifting Championship 2022
  • IV. won a gold medal in the Paris Olympics 2024
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A) Only I, II & III are correct
  • B) Only II, III & IV are correct
  • C) Only I, III & IV are correct
  • D) All are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
52. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilization:
  • I. The buildings at Harappa were more elaborately constructed than those at Mohenjo-Daro.
  • II. Mohenjo-Daro had a large tank (Great Bath) located within the Citadel mound.
  • III. The granary is the largest building discovered at Harappa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I and II
  • B) II only
  • C) I and III only
  • D) I, II and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
53. Match the following Buddhist Councils with their respective venues:
Council Venue
1. First Buddhist Council a. Rajgriha
2. Second Buddhist Council b. Vaishali
3. Third Buddhist Council c. Kashmir
4. Fourth Buddhist Council d. Pataliputra
How many of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched?
  • A) Only one pair
  • B) Only two pairs
  • C) Only three pairs
  • D) All pairs are correctly matched
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: 3rd was Pataliputra, 4th was Kashmir. So pairs 3 and 4 are incorrect.)
54. Consider the following locations:
  • I. Surat
  • II. Madras
  • III. Bombay
In how many of the above-given locations did the British East India Company establish their factories during the reign of Mughal emperor Jahangir?
  • A) Only one
  • B) Only two
  • C) All three
  • D) None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
55. Consider the following monuments:
  • 1. Taj Mahal
  • 2. Agra Fort
  • 3. Red Fort
  • 4. Shalimar Bagh
In how many of the above monuments has the pietra dura (inlay work with semi-precious stones) technique been used?
  • A) Only one
  • B) Only two
  • C) Only three
  • D) All four
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
56. Which of the following foreign accounts provide contemporary evidence about the Vijayanagara Empire?
  • I. Abdur Razzaq’s writings
  • II. Ibn Battuta’s Rihla
  • III. Domingo Paes’ travel account
  • IV. Niccolo de’ Conti’s travelogue
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A) I, II and III only
  • B) I, II and IV only
  • C) II and III only
  • D) All four
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
57. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Cripps Mission (1942):
  • I. The provinces were to enjoy full autonomy and could choose to remain outside the proposed Indian Union.
  • II. The Mission proposed the establishment of a Constituent Assembly after the war to frame India’s Constitution.
  • III. The Muslim League rejected the offer because it did not explicitly recognize the demand for Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I and III only
  • C) I, II and III
  • D) II and III only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
58. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
  • I. It introduced provincial autonomy with ministries responsible to the elected provincial legislatures.
  • II. It retained the overriding powers of the Governor-General in both provincial and central administration.
  • III. It established bicameral legislatures at the Centre and in all provinces without exception.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I and II only
  • B) I and III only
  • C) II and III only
  • D) I, II and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
59. With reference to the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929), consider the following statements:
  • I. It was presided over by Subhas Chandra Bose.
  • II. The resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was adopted at this session.
  • III. It was decided to celebrate 26 January 1930 as Independence Day.
  • IV. It approved participation in the Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I and IV only
  • B) II and III only
  • C) I, II, and III only
  • D) II, III, and IV only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
60. Consider the following personalities:
  • 1. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
  • 2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
  • 3. Ishan Chandra Roy
  • 4. Ram Mohan Roy
  • 5. Sambhunath Pal
  • 6. Tomma Dora
How many of the above personalities were associated with the Pabna Agrarian Revolt (1873-76)?
  • A) Only two
  • B) Only three
  • C) Only four
  • D) Only five
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Associated: Ishan Chandra Roy and Sambhunath Pal.)
61. With reference to journals in Modern Indian History, consider the following pairs:
Journal Founder/Associated Person
1. Kesari Surendranath Banerjee
2. Bengalee Bal Gangadhar Tilak
3. Sudharak Gopal Krishna Gokhale
4. Indian Mirror Keshab Chandra Sen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • A) Only one pair
  • B) Only two pairs
  • C) Only three pairs
  • D) All four pairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: Kesari was Tilak, Bengalee was Surendranath. Sudharak and Indian Mirror are correctly matched.)
62. Glucose is classified as:
  • A) Aldohexose
  • B) Ketohexose
  • C) Aldopentose
  • D) Ketopentose
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
63. Ramcharita was written by:
  • A) Tulsi Das
  • B) Banabhatta
  • C) Padmagupta
  • D) Sandhyakaranandin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D

64. The saffron cultivation in Kashmir was introduced by:
  • A) Mijjhantika
  • B) Arvala
  • C) Sakyasimha
  • D) Asvaghosha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: Saffron cultivation in Kashmir is traditionally attributed to the Buddhist monk Mijjhantika in the 5th century B.C.)
65. Choose the incorrect statement about the findings of 1st water census of Jammu and Kashmir from the following statements:
  • A) Majority of the water bodies in Jammu and Kashmir are located in rural areas.
  • B) More than half of total water bodies in Jammu and Kashmir are lakes.
  • C) There are less than 10000 water bodies in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • D) More than 50% of the water bodies are publicly owned in the UT.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: This statement is incorrect. According to the census, the majority of water bodies are ponds/tanks, not lakes.)
66. Which of the following statements about coral reefs in India:
  • Statement 1: The Fourth Global Coral Bleaching Event (GCBE4) has not impacted the coral reefs of India.
  • Statement 2: Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) have been established across India to limit human activities, and promote ecosystem and coral reef recovery.
  • Statement 3: Coral species are not protected under Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
How many statement(s) is/are correct?
  • A) Only one statement
  • B) Only two statements
  • C) All statements are correct
  • D) No statement is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: Only Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is false (bleaching did impact), and Statement 3 is false (corals are protected under Schedule I).)
67. The equator does NOT pass through which of the following African countries?
  • A) Gabon
  • B) Cameroon
  • C) Kenya
  • D) Somalia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: The Equator passes through Gabon, Kenya, and Somalia, but not Cameroon.)
68. Which among of the following district of J&K is covered under the NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative?
  • A) Baramulla
  • B) Badgam
  • C) Pulwama
  • D) Kupwara
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
69. Consider the following statements about the Surinsar-Mansar lake:
  • Statement-1: It was designated as a Ramsar site in 2005.
  • Statement-2: This site does not host migratory birds.
  • Statement-3: It has a rich diversity of aquatic fauna.
Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?
  • A) Only 1 and 2
  • B) Only 1 and 3
  • C) Only 2 and 3
  • D) All the statements are correct.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: Statement 2 is incorrect; the lakes do host migratory birds.)
70. The longitudinal extent of India is:
  • A) 70°7′ E to 97°25′ E
  • B) 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E
  • C) 67°7′ E to 96°25′ E
  • D) 68°7′ E to 95°25′ E
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
71. Consider the following statements regarding the Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed by the UNDP:
  • I. The HPI-1 measures human poverty in developing countries, focusing on deprivation in longevity, knowledge, and standard of living.
  • II. The HPI-2 measures human poverty in industrialised countries, incorporating an additional dimension of social exclusion.
  • III. The Human Poverty Index has been replaced by the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in the Human Development Reports since 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I and II only
  • B) II and III only
  • C) I and III only
  • D) I, II, and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
72. Match the indigenous cattle breeds with their corresponding regions of origin in India:
Name of the breed Region of Origin
a. Bargur i. Karnataka
b. Hallikar ii. Kerala
c. Vechur iii. Tamil Nadu
d. Bachaur iv. Bihar
Choose the correct match (based on standard matching):
  • A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  • B) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  • C) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  • D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: Bargur-Tamil Nadu, Hallikar-Karnataka, Vechur-Kerala, Bachaur-Bihar.)
73. Recently, archaeologists conducted the first-ever scientific dating of a sarcophagus (terracotta coffin), along with burial offerings such as carnelian beads, indicating trade contacts with northern regions during the Harappan period. The newly discovered site is:
  • A) Kilnamandi
  • B) Adichanallur
  • C) Sivagalai
  • D) Rakhigarhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
74. Arrange the following Biosphere Reserves of India in the chronological order of their establishment:
  • 1. Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu
  • 2. Simlipal, Odisha
  • 3. Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh
  • 4. Agasthyamalai, Tamil Nadu/Kerala
  • 5. Kachchh, Gujarat
Choose the correct Answer:
  • A) Gulf of Mannar, Simlipal, Pachmarhi, Agasthyamalai, Kachchh
  • B) Gulf of Mannar, Pachmarhi, Simlipal, Agasthyamalai, Kachchh
  • C) Simlipal, Gulf of Mannar, Pachmarhi, Kachchh, Agasthyamalai
  • D) Kachchh, Agasthyamalai, Pachmarhi, Simlipal, Gulf of Mannar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
75. With reference to disaster management in India, consider the following statements regarding “Operation Megh Rahat” launched by the Indian Army in 2014:
  • I. It was a major Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operation conducted in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • II. The operation was launched in response to severe landslides triggered by an earthquake.
  • III. It involved large-scale deployment of troops, engineering task forces, and helicopters to rescue civilians and restore essential infrastructure.
  • IV. The operation was jointly carried out by the state government in collaboration with non-governmental organizations (NGOs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I, II and III only
  • B) I and III only
  • C) I, III and IV only
  • D) II, III and IV only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: It was in response to floods, not an earthquake.)
76. Consider the following Statements:
  • Assertion (A): Heavier objects fall faster than lighter ones.
  • Reason (R): Acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the object.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A) Both A and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B) Both A and R are both correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
  • D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
77. Consider the following statements regarding light:
  • I. Reflection and refraction are optical phenomena.
  • II. Both reflection and refraction involve a change in the speed of light.
  • III. Refraction bends the path of light.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  • A) Only I and II are correct
  • B) Only II and III are correct
  • C) Only I and III are correct
  • D) I, II and III are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
(Note: Reflection does not involve a change in speed.)
78. Which of the following statement about viruses and bacteria is correct?
  • A) Viruses can reproduce independently outside living cells.
  • B) Bacteria can live independently and reproduce by binary fission.
  • C) Both viruses and bacteria are multicellular organisms.
  • D) Viruses and bacteria are both visible under a light microscope.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
79. Identify the correct match between digestive enzymes and the substances they act upon:
Digestive Enzymes Elements Digested
1. Amylase carbohydrates
2. Lipase proteins
3. Pepsin fats
How many of the above matches is/are correct?
  • A) Only one match
  • B) Only two matches
  • C) All three matches
  • D) None of the matches
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: Only Amylase is correctly matched. Lipase digests fats, Pepsin digests proteins.)
80. Consider the following statements regarding genetic material and cell divisions:
  • I. Genetic traits are carried by DNA.
  • II. RNA is a double-stranded molecule.
  • III. Mitosis leads to the formation of new cells, contributing to growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) Only I and II
  • B) Only I and III
  • C) Only II and III
  • D) I, II and III
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: RNA is typically single-stranded.)
81. Consider the following pairs:
Plant Hormone Function
1. Auxin Involved in phototropism
2. Cytokinin Stimulates cell division
3. Gibberellin Promotes stem elongation
4. Abscisic acid Promotes seed dormancy
How many of the above pair(s) is/ are correctly matched?
  • A) Only one pair
  • B) Only two pairs
  • C) Only three pairs
  • D) All four pairs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
82. A satellite moving in a circular orbit around the Earth has which of the following characteristic?
  • A) Zero acceleration
  • B) Constant speed but changing velocity
  • C) Constant velocity
  • D) Decreasing energy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
83. Who among the following(s) was/were awarded the Nobel Prize posthumously?
  • I. Erik Axel Karlfeldt
  • II. Dag Hammarskjöld
  • III. Pierre Curie
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) Only I and II
  • B) Only III
  • C) I, II and III
  • D) None of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
84. Which of the following acts as the natural pacemaker of the human heart?
  • A) AV node
  • B) SA node
  • C) Bundle of His
  • D) Purkinje fibers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
85. Consider the following statements regarding Diethylene Glycol (DEG):
  • I. It is an industrial solvent used in a variety of products, including antifreeze, brake fluid, and fabric and dye manufacturing.
  • II. The chemical is a standard ingredient in e-cigarette liquid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
86. Consider the following statements regarding electricity:
  • I. Static electricity does not flow through wires.
  • II. Lightning is an example of static electricity.
  • III. Electric current is always static in nature.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  • A) Only I and II are correct
  • B) Only II and III are correct
  • C) Only I and III are correct
  • D) I, II and III are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
87. Pure water has a pH of 7 at which of the following temperatures?
  • A) 100°C
  • B) 51°C
  • C) 32°C
  • D) 25°C
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
88. Consider the following statements:
  • I. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
  • II. Both diamond and graphite are good conductors of electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: Diamond is an electrical insulator.)
89. Which of the indigenous air defence system was integrated with Akashteer during Operation Sindoor to automate low-level aerial threat response?
  • A) Akash SAM
  • B) Barak-8
  • C) Prithvi Air Defence
  • D) S-400
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
90. Consider the following statements regarding the Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus):
  • I. It is strictly arboreal in its habits.
  • II. It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
  • III. It is classified as “Critically Endangered” on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I, II and III
  • B) I and II only
  • C) II and III only
  • D) I and III only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
(Note: It is classified as Endangered, not Critically Endangered.)
91. Which of the following organisms breed only once in their lifetime (semelparous species)?
  • I. Pelagic fishes
  • II. Oysters
  • III. Pacific salmon fish
  • IV. Bamboo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A) I, II and IV
  • B) I and III
  • C) II and IV
  • D) III and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
92. Recently, patches of coral reefs have been reported in which of the following locations in India?
  • I. Ratnagiri
  • II. Malvan and Redi
  • III. Gaveshani Bank
  • IV. South Bombay
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I, II and III
  • B) II and III
  • C) I, II, III and IV
  • D) III and IV
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C
93. Identify the States in India that have approved Plastic Parks:
  • I. Uttarakhand
  • II. Maharashtra
  • III. Madhya Pradesh
  • IV. Jharkhand
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • A) I, II, III and IV
  • B) I, III and IV only
  • C) II, III and IV only
  • D) I and III only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
94. Which of the following birds exhibit brood parasitism?
  • I. Indigobird
  • II. Common Cuckoo
  • III. Honeyguide
  • IV. Eagle
  • V. Pigeon
  • VI. Cowbirds
Choose the correct answer:
  • A) I, II, IV, V and VI
  • B) II, III, IV and V
  • C) I, V and VI
  • D) I, II, III and VI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
95. Consider the following statements:
  • I. Deep Ocean Mission, launched in 2021, focuses on sustainably harnessing ocean wealth and strengthening the Blue Economy, launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MOES)
  • II. India’s first unmanned submersible vehicle ‘MATSYA 6000’ is being developed as part of the Samudrayaan Project under the Deep Ocean Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A). I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: ‘Matsya 6000’ is a manned submersible.)
96. Find the correctly matched extinct species and their countries:
List-I (Species) List-II (Countries)
1. Dodo Mauritius
2. Quagga Australia (Incorrect match in table)
3. Thylacine Africa (Incorrect match in table)
4. Steller’s sea cow Russia
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
  • A) 2 and 3 only
  • B) 1 and 4 only
  • C) 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
97. International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) became a treaty-based intergovernmental organization after ratification by five countries. Which of the following combinations is/ are correct?
  • A) India, Liberia, Eswatini, Ethiopia, and Nicaragua.
  • B) India, Liberia, Ethiopia, Somalia, and Nicaragua.
  • C) India, Ethiopia, Eswatini, Somalia, and Nicaragua.
  • D) India, Liberia, Eswatini, Somalia, and Nicaragua
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D
98. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Pricing:
  • I. Carbon pricing is a policy tool that puts a financial cost on greenhouse gas emissions, primarily methane
  • II. It works by making emitters pay for the environmental damage caused by their pollution, encouraging them to reduce emissions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B
99. Consider the following statements regarding cotton production and GM crops in India:
  • I. Bt. cotton is the only Genetically Modified (GM) crop approved for commercial cultivation in India.
  • II. India is the world’s third-largest cotton producer, after China and the United States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
100. Consider the following statements:
  • I. The Montreux Record is maintained under the Ramsar Convention as part of the List of Wetlands of International Importance.
  • II. In India, Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Chilika Lake (Odisha) are currently included in the Montreux Record.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A) I only
  • B) II only
  • C) Both I and II
  • D) Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A
(Note: Chilika Lake was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002.)

✓ Important — Cut-Off Focus
Did you know? The JKPSC KAS Cut-off is not fixed. It fluctuates based on the difficulty of the GS Paper I. Since Paper II (CSAT) is qualifying (33%), your selection for Mains depends entirely on how well you score in the General Studies Paper. Check the topic-wise breakdown below.
Unit I: History • Unit II: Geography • Unit III: Polity • Unit IV: Economy • Unit V: J&K Special

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