- Exam Name: JKSSB Website Operator
- Exam Date: 8th February 2026
- Total Questions: 120
- Paper Type: Fully Solved
- Difficulty Level: Moderate
The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) recently conducted the recruitment exam for the post of Website Operator. For candidates who appeared in the exam or those preparing for future JKSSB recruitments, analyzing the JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper is crucial to understanding the difficulty level, question pattern, and syllabus weightage.
In this post, we have provided the complete, fully solved JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper held on February 8, 2026. This solved paper includes detailed answers for Computer Applications, General Knowledge, English, and Reasoning sections.
Importance of Practising JKSSB Website Operator Previous Year Papers
Solving the actual JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper helps aspirants:
- Identify frequently asked topics in Computer Science and IT.
- Understand the distribution of marks across different sections.
- Practice time management for the actual exam.
- Evaluate their preparation level against the official JKSSB standards.
JKSSB Website Operator Exam Analysis 2026
The 2026 exam followed a balanced approach. While the Computer Application section focused heavily on Operating Systems and Networking, the General Knowledge section covered recent current affairs and J&K-specific history.
Below is the full set of questions from the JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper.
1. Who has received the 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security award?
A. Sri Sri Ravi Shankar.
B. Ban Ki-moon
C. María Corina Machado
D. Vjosa Osmani
Correct Answer A. Sri Sri Ravi Shankar.
2. Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KSO) is located in which state?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu.
Correct Answer D. Tamil Nadu.
3. Consider the following statements about India’s location and choose the correct option.
A. India lies entirely in the tropical zone.
B. India lies in the Northern and Western hemispheres.
C. India lies in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres.
D. India lies entirely in the temperate zone.
Correct Answer C. India lies in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres.
4. The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which Indian state?
A. Manipur
B. Tripura
C. Mizoram
D. Jharkhand
Correct Answer A. Manipur
5. Which of the following are two works of Kalidasa?
A. Raghuvamsha and Ratnavali
B. Meghadutta and Malvikagnimitra
C. Harshcharita and Kiratarjuniya
D. Malti Madhav and Raghuvamsha
Correct Answer B. Meghadutta and Malvikagnimitra
6. Match the following National Leaders with their Contribution
| National Leaders | Contribution |
|---|---|
| i) Mahatma Gandhi | 1. Azad Hind Fauj |
| ii) Bhagat Singh | 2. Central Legislative Assembly Bombing |
| iii) Subhash Chandra Bose | 3. Dandi March |
| iv) Bal Gangadhar Tilak | 4. Swaraj is my birthright |
A. i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
B. i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1
C. i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
D. i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
Correct Answer C. i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
7. Which body is responsible for conducting the census in India?
A. Election Commission of India
B. NITI Aayog
C. Ministry of Statistics
D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Correct Answer D. Ministry of Home Affairs
8. Which river rises in Khamarpat hill in the Chhotanagpur plateau and is called the “river of sorrow”?
A. Mahanadi
B. Son
C. Damodar
D. Ghaggar
Correct Answer C. Damodar
9. Which of the following are the tributaries of the Kaveri River?
- I. Arkavati
- II. Painganga
- III. Shimsha
- IV. Lakshman Tirtha
- V. Tungbhadra
A. I, II, III only
B. II, IV, V only
C. I, III, IV only
D. All of the Above
Correct Answer C. I, III, IV only
10. Match the following Dams with their associated
| Dams | Rivers |
|---|---|
| i) Mettur | 1. Kaveri |
| ii) Ukai | 2. Tapti |
| iii) Bisalpur | 3. Bhavani |
| iv) Pilur | 4. Banas |
A. i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
B. i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
C. i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
D. i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
Correct Answer D. i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
11. Which of the following best distinguishes weather from climate?
A. Weather refers to long-term atmospheric trends, while climate refers to daily conditions
B. Weather describes short-term conditions, while climate represents long-term average
C. Weather and climate are interchangeable terms
D. Climate refers only to temperature, while weather includes all atmospheric elements
Correct Answer B. Weather describes short-term conditions, while climate represents long-term average
12. Eastern Rail Dedicated Freight Corridor connects which two places?
A. Sahnewal (Punjab) and Dankuni (Bengal)
B. Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh) and Dankuni (Bengal)
C. Sahnewal (Punjab) and Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
D. None of the above
Correct Answer A. Sahnewal (Punjab) and Dankuni (Bengal)
13. Which of the following statements correctly explains the historical-cultural significance of Kashmir’s Rangrez and Namda traditions?
A. Rangrez refers to Buddhist mural painting of the Kushan period, while Namda is a silk-based carpet introduced during Afghan rule.
B. Rangrez was a hereditary dyeing community patronised during the Mughal period, and Namda is a felted wool floor covering associated with Sufi symbolism.
C. Rangrez denotes miniature painting influenced by Persian Safavid art, while Namda represents papier-mache craft developed under Dogra rulers.
D. Rangrez is a form of folk theatre linked to the Bhand Pather tradition, while Namda is a temple wall-painting style from early Shaivism.
Correct Answer B. Rangrez was a hereditary dyeing community patronised during the Mughal period, and Namda is a felted wool floor covering associated with Sufi symbolism.
14. As per Economic Survey, 2024-2025, the UT of Jammu and Kashmir contributes _____% to national GDP in proportion to its population being _____% of total national population.
A. 0.8 and 0.98, respectively
B. 0.98 and 0.8, respectively
C. 0.8 and 0.8, respectively
D. 0.98 and 0.98, respectively
Correct Answer A. 0.8 and 0.98, respectively
15. Consider the following statements about Akhnoor Fort, located about 28 km away from Jammu city: I. The fort is on the right bank of the river Jhelum. II. The fort was built around 1762-1802 at the behest of Raja Tegh Singh.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I Nor II
Correct Answer B. II only
16. Consider the following statements about the fairs and festivals of Jammu & Kashmir:
I. Purmandal Mela is organized on Shivaratri (February-March).
II. Jhiri mela (October-November) is held around the legend of Baba Jitu.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I Nor II
Correct Answer C. Both I and II
17. Kashmir has been creating Kashan and Kirman, Tabriz and Isfahan with superb artistry. These are subtypes of?
A. Basholi Paintings
B. Persian Rugs
C. Music forms
D. None of the above
Correct Answer B. Persian Rugs
18. Which of the following species found in Jammu & Kashmir are critically endangered? I. Hangul II. Snow Leopard III. Himalayan Tahr IV. Markhor
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer C. I and IV only
19. The Kashmir valley is surrounded by the range of Himalayas, bounded on the southwest by the _____ Range and on the northeast by the _____ Range.
A. Great Himalayan range and Pir Panjal range, respectively
B. Ladakh range and Pir Panjal range, respectively
C. Great Himalayan range and Ladakh range, respectively
D. Pir Panjal range and Great Himalayas range, respectively
Correct Answer D. Pir Panjal range and Great Himalayas range, respectively
20. The Sadhna Pass is in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
A. Baramulla
B. Kishtwar
C. Anantnag
D. Kupwara
Correct Answer D. Kupwara
21. Operating System:
A) Links a program with subordinate interferences
B) Enables the programmer to draw a flowchart
C) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
D) All of these.
Correct Answer C) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
22. While a computer is switched on, its operating system software has to stay in:
A) External storage
B) Disk drive
C) Floppy disk/Pen Drive
D) Primary storage
Correct Answer D) Primary storage
23. To execute more than one program at a time, the system software used must be capable of:
A) Virtual memory
B) Coupling
C) Multitasking.
D) Word processing
Correct Answer C) Multitasking
24. Which of the following is an open-source mobile operating system?
A) iOS
B) Windows Phone
C) Android.
D) BlackBerry OS
Correct Answer C) Android
25. Which component of the CPU is responsible for controlling the sequence of operations and managing the flow of data?
A) Register
B) Cache
C) ALU
D) Control Unit.
Correct Answer D) Control Unit
26. Which type of software license lets users see the source code, change it, and share it with others?
A) Open-source license
B) Proprietary license
C) Freeware license
D) Shareware license
Correct Answer A) Open-source license
27. The highest data transfer rate is provided by which of the following of the storage device?
A) Magnetic Tape
B) Hard Disk Drive
C) Solid State Drive.
D) Optical Disk
Correct Answer C) Solid State Drive
28. Which of the following firmware is responsible for initializing hardware and loading operating system?
A) Device driver
B) Compiler
C) BIOS.
D) Kernel
Correct Answer C) BIOS
29. Which output device is most appropriate for printing large engineering drawings?
A) Laser printer
B) Plotter.
C) Inkjet printer
D) Dot matrix printer
Correct Answer B) Plotter
30. Which input device reads characters printed using special magnetic ink?
A) OCR
B) OMR
C) MICR
D) Bar code reader
Correct Answer C) MICR
31. Which generation of computers introduced the concept of integrated circuits (ICs)?
A) First generation
B) Second generation
C) Third generation.
D) Fourth generation
Correct Answer C) Third generation
32. The smallest unit of data in a computer is called:
A) Block
B) Bit.
C) Byte
D) Word
Correct Answer B) Bit
33. The binary number equivalent to decimal 10 is:
A) 1010.
B) 0101
C) 1111
D) 1001
Correct Answer A) 1010
34. Full Form of ISP?
A) Internal Service Protocol
B) Internet Secure Protocol
C) Integrated Service Provider
D) Internet Service Provider.
Correct Answer D) Internet Service Provider
35. In an email address, the symbol “@” separates:
A) Protocol and domain Name
B) Domain and Host Name
C) Folder and Username
D) User Name and Domain Name
Correct Answer D) User Name and Domain Name
36. Which of these protocols ensures secure email transmission?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) SSL/TLS.
D) TCP
Correct Answer C) SSL/TLS
37. The following feature in Word allows you to combine letters with a database of addresses?
A) Track Changes
B) Header & Footer
C) AutoCorrect
D) Mail Merge
Correct Answer D) Mail Merge
38. symbol is used to start a formula in Excel
A) %
B) =.
C) +
D) #
Correct Answer B) =
39. Which type of query retrieves data based on a condition?
A) Update Query
B) Append Query
C) Select Query
D) Delete Query
Correct Answer C) Select Query
40. Which key is used to start a slide show from the beginning?
A) F1
B) F5.
C) F7
D) F9
Correct Answer B) F5
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions No.’s 41 to 43:
Global warming refers to the gradual increase in the Earth’s average temperature, primarily due to human activities such as burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas), deforestation, and industrial processes. These activities release greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄) into the atmosphere, which trap heat and cause the planet to warm up. As a result, the Earth’s climate is undergoing significant changes.
One of the most noticeable effects of global warming is the melting of ice caps and glaciers, especially in the polar regions. The rise in global temperatures accelerates the melting process, leading to a rise in sea levels. This can result in the flooding of coastal areas, affecting millions of people around the world.
Global warming also causes extreme weather events like heatwaves, droughts, and hurricanes to become more frequent and intense. These events not only pose a threat to human life but also disrupt ecosystems, agriculture, and water resources. Another concern is the loss of biodiversity. Many species of plants and animals cannot adapt quickly to the changing climate, leading to a decline in their populations.
To mitigate the effects of global warming, international agreements like the Paris Agreement aim to reduce carbon emissions and promote the use of renewable energy sources. Governments, organizations, and individuals all have a role to play in addressing this pressing issue. By adopting sustainable practices, such as reducing energy consumption and protecting forests, we can help slow down global warming and protect the planet for future generations.
41. What is the primary cause of global warming?
A) Natural climate cycles
B) Human activities like burning fossil fuels and deforestation
C) Volcanic eruptions
D) Sun’s natural heat increases
Correct Answer B) Human activities like burning fossil fuels and deforestation
42. How does global warming impact biodiversity?
A) It leads to the adaptation of all species
B) It creates more favorable environments for wildlife
C) It increases the growth of all plant species
D) It causes many species to decline due to the changing climate
Correct Answer D) It causes many species to decline due to the changing climate
43. What is one of the strategies suggested to mitigate global warming?
A) Reducing energy consumption
B) Increasing industrial activities
C) Reducing forest cover
D) Expanding fossil fuel production
Correct Answer A) Reducing energy consumption
44. Given below are four scattered segments of two sentences. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
P. due to rapid urbanization
Q. environmental degradation has increased
R. and unplanned industrial growth
S. in many developing regions
A) P-Q-S-R
B) P-S-Q-R
C) Q-P-R-S
D) S-R-Q-P
Correct Answer C) Q-P-R-S
45. Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options:
Karan speaks _____ Spanish. He believes, honesty is _____ best policy.
A) no article, the
B) an, no article
C) an, the
D) an, a
Correct Answer A) no article, the
46. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence:
On hearing the news over the radio that India won the football match, I jumped with joy.
A) won the football match
B) had won the football match
C) had win the football match
D) NO IMPROVEMENT
Correct Answer B) had won the football match
47. Fill in the blank with the most suitable modal:
This is impossible, it _____ be a mistake.
A) can
B) might
C) must
D) would
Correct Answer C) must
48. Select the most appropriate INDIRECT form of the given sentence:
Newton said to Thomas, “how is your research going?”
A) Newton asked Thomas how was your research going.
B) Newton asked Thomas how his research was going.
C) Newton asked Thomas how is your research going.
D) Newton wanted to know how was Thomas’s research going.
Correct Answer B) Newton asked Thomas how his research was going
49. Which idiom fits the blank to mean “not enough to make a real difference”?
A) A drop in the ocean
B) Break the ice
C) Bite the bullet
D) Call it a day
Correct Answer A) A drop in the ocean
50. Which pronoun correctly refers to “local stakeholders”?
A) who
B) they
C) those
D) these
Correct Answer B) they
51. Which of these homophone pairs can confuse in understanding policies?
A) council/counsel
B) capital/capitol
C) principal/principle
D) all of the above
Correct Answer D) all of the above
52. Read the sentences and underline the subordinate clause:
Although I was not up for a movie, I watched ‘Avatar in hall No.5’ with my friend.
A) Avatar in hall No.5
B) With my friend
C) Although I was not up for a movie
D) None of the above
Correct Answer C) Although I was not up for a movie
53. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: WINSOME
A) Cheerful
B) Charming
C) Bewitching
D) Repellent
Correct Answer D) Repellent
54. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: UMBRAGE
A) Calmness
B) Acclaim
C) Resentment
D) Pleasure
Correct Answer C) Resentment
55. Select the sentence that correctly punctuates the given sentence:
I therefore request you to grant me leave.
A) I therefore, request you to grant me leave.
B) I, therefore, request you to grant me leave.
C) I therefore request, you to grant me leave.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer B) I, therefore, request you to grant me leave.
56. Choose the option that correctly expresses the meaning of the idiom used in the sentence:
By submitting the reports early, the manager wanted to steal a march on its competitors.
A) To gain an unfair advantage by illegal means
B) To achieve an advantage by acting before others
C) To imitate someone else’s strategy
D) To withdraw quietly from a competition
Correct Answer B) To achieve an advantage by acting before others
57. Choose the option that correctly expresses the meaning of the idiom used in the sentence:
The minister threw down the gauntlet by openly questioning the opposition’s policy.
A) To retreat from a public stance
B) To issue a direct challenge
C) To seek compromise through debate
D) To expose confidential information
Correct Answer B) To issue a direct challenge
58. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions:
The management decided to act _____ the recommendation of the expert panel and proceed _____ the proposed reforms.
A) on, with
B) upon, for
C) by, to
D) in, on
Correct Answer A) on, with
59. Change the following sentence from Active voice to Passive voice:
Do the work at once.
A) The work should be done at once.
B) At once, the work be done by you.
C) Let the work be done at once.
D) You are asked to do the work at once.
Correct Answer C) Let the work be done at once.
60. Change the following sentence from Passive voice to Active voice:
The room keys have been forgotten by Shilpa.
A) Shilpa had forgotten the room keys.
B) Shilpa had been forgotten the room keys.
C) Shilpa have forgotten the room keys.
D) Shilpa has forgotten the room keys.
Correct Answer D) Shilpa has forgotten the room keys.
61. The average age of 12 students in a class is 20 years. When 3 new students join the class, the average age of the class increases by 1 year. What is the average age of the 3 new students?
A) 22
B) 23
C) 24
D) 25
Correct Answer D) 25
62. A shopkeeper sells two articles for Rs. 1,500 each. On the first article, he makes a 20% profit, while on the second article, he incurs a 25% loss. What is the overall profit or loss percentage on the total transaction?
A) 5.79% loss
B) 6.79% loss
C) 7.69% loss
D) 8.69% loss
Correct Answer C) 7.69% loss
63. The ratio of milk to water in a container is 5:3. Some quantity of the mixture is removed and replaced with pure water. After this operation, the ratio of milk to water becomes 3:5. If the container initially had 32 litres of mixture, how much of the mixture was removed and replaced?
A) 10 litres
B) 12.8 litres
C) 15.4 litres
D) 18.8 litres
Correct Answer B) 12.8 litres
64. Find the least number divisible by 2, 3, 5, 6 and 15 which is a perfect square.
A) 324
B) 900
C) 729
D) 576
Correct Answer B) 900
65. If a number ‘N’ leaves a remainder 3 when divided by 7, what will be the remainder when ‘7N’ is divided by 7?
A) 0
B) 3
C) 7
D) None of the above
Correct Answer A) 0
66. A trader buys 100 pens at Rs. 20 each. He sells 60 pens at a 10% profit and the remaining 40 pens at a 5% loss. What is the overall profit or loss percentage?
A) 4% profit
B) 4% loss
C) 5% profit
D) 5% loss
Correct Answer A) 4% profit
67. A can complete a piece of work in 12 days, and B can complete the same work in 18 days. A and B start working together, but after 3 days, A leaves the work. Immediately after A leaves, C joins B, and B and C together finish the remaining work in 4 days. If C alone can complete the entire work in x days, what is the value of x?
A) 11.08 days
B) 11 days
C) 12.05 days
D) 12 days
Correct Answer D) 12 days
68. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 hours and 16 hours, respectively. Pipe C can empty the full tank in 24 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, how long will it take to fill the tank?
A) 8 hours
B) 8 hours 40 minutes
C) 9 hours
D) 9 hours 36 minutes
Correct Answer D) 9 hours 36 minutes
69. Find the missing term in the number series: 40, 20, 20, 30, ___, 150
A) 45
B) 90
C) 30
D) 60
Correct Answer D) 60
70. Find the wrong number in the following number series: 729, 243, 182, 27
A) 729
B) 243
C) 182
D) 27
Correct Answer C) 182
71. Select the combination of letters which, when sequentially placed in the blanks, will complete the series: A, C, F, J, O, ___, ___
A) U, B, J
B) V, C, K
C) T, A, H
D) U, A, M
Correct Answer A) U, B, J
72. Find the wrong term in the given series: BDF, EGI, HJL, KMP, NPR
A) EGI
B) HJL
C) KMP
D) NPR
Correct Answer C) KMP
73. If in a certain language, DELHI is coded as WVOSR, then how will MUMBAI be coded in that language?
A) NFNYZR
B) NHNYUR
C) NFNZYR
D) NHNUYR
Correct Answer A) NFNYZR
74. A man is facing South. He turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and then 90° clockwise again. Which direction is he facing now?
A) North
B) East
C) West
D) South
Correct Answer D) South
75. Sheetal starts walking from her house and walks 150m south, then she turns right and walks 80m, and then she turns left and walks 60m. She finally turns left and walks 280m to reach a school. What is the shortest distance between her house and the school?
A) 270m
B) 280m
C) 290m
D) None of the above
Correct Answer C) 290m
76. Pointing to a woman, Ram said, “She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to Ram?
A) Sister
B) Sister-in-law
C) Mother
D) Aunt
Correct Answer A) Sister
77. A sum of Rs. 270 is to be divided among A, B, and C such that A gets twice as much as B, and B gets Rs. 30 more than C. What is the ratio of their shares?
A) 12:6:4
B) 9:5:4
C) 10:5:3
D) 12:7:5
Correct Answer A) 12:6:4
78. If x and y are integers such that: x + y = 14 and x – y = 4, what is the value of x * y?
A) 54
B) 45
C) 36
D) 63
Correct Answer B) 45
79. A boat can travel 30 km downstream in 2 hours and the same distance upstream in 3 hours. How long will it take the boat to travel 45 km downstream and then 30 km upstream?
A) 5:30 hours
B) 5:45 hours
C) 7 hours
D) None of the above
Correct Answer D) None of the above (6 hours)
80. A train 120 m long is running at a speed of 54 km/h. It takes T1 time to cross the pole and T2 time to cross the 180 m long platform. What is the difference in time (T2 – T1), in seconds, taken by the train to cross the platform and the pole?
A) 10 seconds
B) 12 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 18 seconds
Correct Answer B) 12 seconds
How to use this JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper for Preparation?
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Final Thoughts
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