The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) successfully conducted the OMR-based written examination for the post of Wildlife Guard on 8th March 2026. With thousands of aspirants appearing across various centers in the UT, the competition is high, and candidates are now eager to evaluate their performance.
Accessing the JKSSB Wildlife Guard Question Paper is the first step for candidates to cross-verify their responses with the official answer keys released earlier this evening. For those preparing for upcoming recruitment cycles, studying this paper is essential to understanding the current exam pattern, difficulty level, and weightage of topics like General Awareness, Reasoning, and Basic Mathematics
Exam Overview: JKSSB Wildlife Guard 2026
| Feature | Details |
| Exam Date | 8th March 2026 |
| Exam Mode | OMR Based (Objective Type) |
| Post Name | Wildlife Guard |
| Organization | JKSSB |
| Answer Key Status | Released (Official) |
1. At a doctor’s clinic, 8% of patients with liver disease are alcoholics. 6% of all patients are alcoholics, and 12% have liver disease. What’s the probability a patient has liver disease if they are alcoholic?
A 0.16
B 0.44
C 0.016
D 0.22
Correct Answer A 0.16
2. Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers rolled is either 7 or 11?
A 1/5
B 5/3
C 3/7
D 2/9
Correct Answer D 2/9
3. The ratio between two numbers is 2 : 11. If the difference between the numbers is 81 find the smaller number.
A 19
B 18
C 27
D 16
Correct Answer B 18
4. The product of two numbers is 10 more than 5 times the sum. Find the numbers if the numbers are in a ratio 5 : 6.
A 10 & 12
B 12 & 18
C 22 & 09
D 25 & 29
Correct Answer A 10 & 12
5. A factory has 400 workers, with men and women in a 5:3 ratio. 87.5% of all workers are regular. If 92% of the male employees are regular, what percentage of the female employees are regular?
A 72%
B 79.15%
C 80%
D 81.55%
Correct Answer C 80%
6. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 7. Five years ago, their ages were in the ratio 5 : 8. The respective present ages (in years) are
A 22 & 36
B 15 & 21
C 25 & 42
D 10 & 13
Correct Answer B 15 & 21
7. Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If their HCF is 16, then the sum of these two numbers is
A 144
B 124
C 165
D 157
Correct Answer A 144
8. The HCF of two numbers is 74 and their LCM is 12210. If one of the numbers is 1110, what is the sum of the two numbers?
A 1268
B 1924
C 1944
D 1428
Correct Answer B 1924
9. In an examination, 54% of the candidates passed in science and 42% failed in mathematics. If 32% failed in both subjects, what percentage passed in both subjects?
A 56%
B 48%
C 32%
D 44%
Correct Answer D 44%
10. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 4719 respectively. When the first number is divided by 3, the quotient is 121, find the other number?
A 424
B 433
C 469
D 429
Correct Answer D 429
11. A’s income is to B’s income as 5 : 7. A saves Rs. 4,000, and B saves Rs. 5,000. If A’s spending is two-thirds of B’s spending, what’s the combined income of A and B?
A Rs. 22,200/-
B Rs. 24,000/-
C Rs. 22,800/-
D Rs. 46,800/-
Correct Answer B Rs. 24,000/-
12. A 900 km trip takes 11 hours. If 2/5 of the distance is covered at 60 km/h, what speed is needed for the rest of the trip?
A 108
B 77
C 81
D 93
Correct Answer A 108
13. A person covered 42 kilometers in 5 hours, using both walking and cycling. Walking speed was 6 km/h, and cycling speed was 10 km/h. What distance did they cover by walking?
A 12 km
B 1.2 km
C 37 km
D 3.9 km
Correct Answer A 12 km
14. A man completes a certain journey by a car. If he covered 30% of the distance at the speed of 20 kmph, 60% of the distance at 40 km/h and the remaining of the distance at 10 kmph, his average speed is
A 25 km/h
B 22 km/h
C 12 km/h
D 31 km/h
Correct Answer A 25 km/h
15. A man covers half of his journey at 6 km/h and the remaining half at 3 km/h. His average speed is
A 4 km/h
B 4.5 km/h
C 5.22 km/h
D 4.87 km/h
Correct Answer A 4 km/h
16. 13 years back my father’s age was triple of my brother’s age. Five years from now my father will be twice as old as my brother. Find my age now if I am twice of my brother’s age.
A 62
B 63
C 92
D 15
Correct Answer A 62
17. The average age of 3 students is 21 years. If the ratio of their ages is x : y : z, find the value with which y is related. It is known that x : y = 1 : 2 and y : z = 1 : 3.
A 13
B 14
C 21
D 7
Correct Answer B 14
18. A and B together can complete a work in 3 days. They start together but after 2 days A left the work. If the work is completed after two more days, B alone could do the work in
A 12 days
B 4.2 days
C 6 days
D 3.33 days
Correct Answer C 6 days
19. To complete a work, A takes 50% more time than B. If together they take 18 days to complete the work, how much time shall B take to do it?
A 30 days
B 25 days
C 18 days
D 42 days
Correct Answer A 30 days
20. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
A 1/2
B 5/3
C 5/8
D 9/20
Correct Answer D 9/20
21. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?
A 1/11
B 2/15
C 2/7
D 1/14
Correct Answer C 2/7
22. A class of 40 students took a test, and the average score was calculated to be 45. However, there were errors in recording some scores: 25 was mistakenly recorded as 35 twice, and 38 was mistakenly recorded as 32 once. What is the correct average score of the class?
A 44.65
B 38
C 48.27
D 49.80
Correct Answer A 44.65
23. A cricketer has a batting average of 50 runs over 40 innings. The difference between his highest and lowest scores is 172 runs. If the highest and lowest scores are removed, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48. What was the cricketer’s highest score?
A 114
B 131
C 125
D 174
Correct Answer D 174
24. A shooting team of eight members had a competition. The top scorer got 85 points. If that person had scored 92 points, the team’s average score would have been 84. What was the team’s total score? JKSSB Wildlife Guard-2026
A 679
B 665
C 666
D 657
Correct Answer B 665
25. What will be the radius of the circle (in cm) for which the circumference and the area are numerically equal?
A 2
B 4.2
C 4.5
D 2.1
Correct Answer A 2
26. A bird travels: 40 km north, then 50 km east, then 110 km north, and finally 50 km west. What is the bird’s final position relative to its starting point?
A 50 km South
B 150 km North
C 50 km East
D 120 South
Correct Answer B 150 km North
27. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 16, 33, 100, 401, ?
A 525
B 1291
C 1331
D 2006
Correct Answer D 2006
28. Float : Sink :: Boat : ?
A Ship
B Aeroplane
C Submarine
D Jeep
Correct Answer C Submarine
29. A man starts from point A, walks 20 km East to reach point B. He then turns North and walks 15 km to reach point C. Next, he turns West and walks 8 km to reach point D. Finally, he turns South and walks 15 km to reach point E. What is the distance and direction of point E from point A?
A 3 km East
B 12 km South
C 3 km North
D 12 km East
Correct Answer D 12 km East
30. A truck moves: North 36 km, West 9 km, South 50 km, and then East 9 km. What is the truck’s final position relative to its starting point?
A 14 km South
B 14 km West
C 14 km North
D 14 km East
Correct Answer A 14 km South
31. Asthma : Lungs :: Conjunctivitis : ?
A Bones
B Teeth
C Eyes
D Skin
Correct Answer C Eyes
32. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 28, 32, 41, 57, ?
A 28
B 82
C 156
D 981
Correct Answer B 82
33. In a certain code FIRE is coded as DGPC. What will be the last letter of the coded word for SHOT?
A Q
B R
C S
D T
Correct Answer B R
34. If SUMMER is coded RUNNER, the code for WINTER is
A SBVGTV
B VIOUER
C WALKER
D KNNHYT
Correct Answer B VIOUER
35. In a code language, if PEN is written as 17717, then how will CAP be written in the same language?
)A 2319
B 4319
C 4111
D 1119
Correct Answer B 4319
36. If letters A–Z are assigned odd numbers (A=1, B=3 etc.), what is the numerical value of the word HONEY?
A 132725747
B 152927947
C 152927949
D 132725745
Correct Answer C 152927949
37. If “TAPE” is coded as “SUZBOQDF” in a specific system, how would “MOCK” be coded using the same system?
A LOPQBCKL
B MOQPDELM
C KNNPBEBL
D LNNPBDJL
Correct Answer D LNNPBDJL
38. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements.
Statements: All dogs are cats. No cat is a bird.
Conclusions: I. Some dogs are birds. II. No dog is a bird. JKSSB Wildlife Guard-2026
A Only Conclusion I follows
B Only Conclusion II follows
C Both Conclusion I and II follows
D Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Correct Answer B Only Conclusion II follows
39. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements: All dogs are mammals. No mammal is a reptile. All snakes are reptiles.
Conclusions: I. No dog is a snake. II. Some snakes are not mammals. III. Some dogs may be snakes.
A Only Conclusion I follows
B Only Conclusion I and II follows
C Only Conclusion II and III follows
D Neither Conclusion I, II nor III follows
Correct Answer B Only Conclusion I and II follows
40. In a certain code language, ‘MOHAN’ is coded as 39-45-24-3-42 and ‘KABIR’ is coded as 33-3-6-27-54. How will ‘RAGHU’ be coded in that language?
A 54-2-21-16-42
B 36-2-14-24-42
C 54-3-21-24-63
D 36-3-14-16-63
Correct Answer C 54-3-21-24-63
41. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?
A Father
B Son
C Uncle
D Brother
Correct Answer C Uncle
42. Introducing a lady, a man said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” What is the man to the lady?
A Father
B Son
C Uncle
D Brother
Correct Answer A Father
43. A family consists of six people: P, Q, R, S, T, and U. T’s brother is married to P. U is the mother of T. Q is the daughter of S and P, and also the granddaughter of R. What is the relationship between R and T?
A Father
B Son
C Uncle
D Brother
Correct Answer A Father
44. A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. C is married to D. E is the son of D. How is A related to E?
A Sister
B Grandmother
C Daughter
D Mother
Correct Answer B Grandmother
45. What will come at the place of question mark? 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121.
A 100
B 91
C 64
D 81
Correct Answer D 81
46. A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the number that will complete the series. 7, 21, 63, ?, 567, 1701
A 189
B 136
C 111
D 191
Correct Answer A 189
47. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 2, 9, 28, 65, ?
A 130
B 100
C 110
D 126
Correct Answer D 126
48. What number should come next in the following series? 10, 11, 15, 24, 40, ?
A 65
B 60
C 55
D 50
Correct Answer A 65
49. What will come at the place of question mark? 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ?
A 49
B 36
C 30
D 39
Correct Answer D 39
50. I walk 30 metres in North-West direction from my house and then 30 metres in South-West direction. After this I walk 30 metres in South-East direction. Now, I turn to my house, in what direction am I going?
A North-East
B North-West
C South-East
D South-West
Correct Answer A North-East
Read the following passage and answer the following questions. (51 to 53)
Wildlife across the world is facing increasing risks due to human activities and environmental changes. Rapid deforestation, expansion of agricultural land, urbanization, and climate change have significantly reduced natural habitats, forcing many species into smaller and more fragmented areas. As a result, incidents of human-wildlife conflict have become more frequent, posing threats to both animals and local communities.
In response to these challenges, governments and conservation organizations have implemented various measures to protect wildlife. The establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves aims to conserve critical habitats. Anti-poaching laws have been strengthened, and the use of technology such as camera traps and satellite tracking has improved the monitoring of endangered species. Awareness campaigns have also been launched to involve local communities in conservation efforts.
Despite these initiatives, wildlife conservation continues to face limitations. Insufficient funding, weak enforcement of laws, and a lack of coordination among agencies often reduce the effectiveness of conservation programs. Moreover, conservation efforts that overlook the livelihood needs of local populations can lead to resistance and non-cooperation.
The way forward lies in adopting an integrated approach that balances ecological protection with human development. Promoting community-based conservation, restoring degraded habitats, and encouraging sustainable land-use practices are essential steps. Long-term success will depend on political commitment, scientific research, and active public participation to ensure that wildlife conservation remains both effective and inclusive.
51. What is the main reason for the increasing risk to wildlife mentioned in the passage?
A Natural disasters alone
B Human activities and environmental changes
C Lack of scientific research alone
D Increase in wildlife population
Correct Answer B Human activities and environmental changes
52. Which step has NOT been mentioned as a conservation measure?
A Creation of wildlife sanctuaries
B Strengthening anti-poaching laws
C Use of technology for monitoring
D Relocation of all forest-dwelling communities
Correct Answer D Relocation of all forest-dwelling communities
53. The “integrated approach” mentioned in the passage refers to:
A Focusing only on wildlife protection
B Replacing conservation laws with voluntary action
C Combining ecological conservation with human development
D Giving priority to industrial growth
Correct Answer C Combining ecological conservation with human development
54. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles. During the ceremony, __ eulogy was read to celebrate the life of __ humble person.
A a, a
B an, the
C a, an
D an, a
Correct Answer A a, a
55. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles. No one imagined that such __ heinous crime could occur inside __ victim’s house.
A a, a
B the, an
C a, an
D a, the
Correct Answer D a, the
56. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles. __ story of this movie revolves around __ one-eyed man who overcomes many challenges.
A The, No article
B The, a
C The, the
D No article, the
Correct Answer B The, a
57. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Fecund
A Sterile
B Prolific
C Barren
D Scanty
Correct Answer B Prolific
58. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Prodigal
A Extravagant
B Frugal
C Penurious
D Parsimonious
Correct Answer A Extravagant
59. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Prudence
A Brashness
B Circumspection
C Gingerliness
D Colloquialism
Correct Answer A Brashness
60. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Benign
A Anodyne
B Salubrious
C Pernicious
D Innocuous
Correct Answer C Pernicious
61. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions. He has a deep aversion ____ hypocrisy.
A For
B with
C To
D against
Correct Answer C To
62. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions. She is adept __ solving complex mathematical problems.
A on
B at
C with
D for
Correct Answer B at
63. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions. The manager was accused ____ negligence in handling the project.
A for
B with
C of
D about
Correct Answer C of
64. Which of the following sentences contains an inchoative verb?
A She runs every morning.
B The sky darkened suddenly.
C He wrote a letter.
D Boys are playing football.
Correct Answer B The sky darkened suddenly
65. As the night advanced, the air ____ cooler.
A grow
B grew
C grown
D grows
Correct Answer B grew
66. Which form of verb is used in the sentence below?
The apparatus functioned as it was originally designed to do, but only after repeated trials.
A Transitive Verb
B Intransitive Verb
C Linking Verb
D Auxiliary Verb
Correct Answer B Intransitive Verb
67. Which of the following determiners (Bold) in the sentence are correctly matched with their type?
I. These books are very informative. (Demonstrative determiner)
II. She has some doubts about the proposal. (Distributive determiner)
III. My brother lives abroad. (Possessive determiner)
IV. Each student received a certificate. (Quantitative determiner)
Choose the correct option:
A I and III only
B I, II and III only
C I and IV only
D I, III and IV only
Correct Answer D I, III and IV only
68. In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used?
A Despite checking each record carefully, the auditor could not detect the financial discrepancy.
B Fortunately, she has some relatives who are always ready to support her in times of need.
C Not much students were aware of the sudden change in schedule.
D Those students participated in the debate competition.
Correct Answer C Not much students were aware of the sudden change in schedule
69. Which of the following sentences contains a Possessive Determiner?
A Several of the proposed solutions were rejected due to impracticality.
B Every solution has advantages and disadvantages, but some are more feasible than others.
C Few students understood the complexity of such philosophical arguments.
D They were proud of their achievements in the international competition.
Correct Answer D They were proud of their achievements in the international competition
70. Select the correct spelling of the word meaning “A person who talks through his or her hat.”
A Perpilocutionist
B Perorationalist
C Perlocutionist
D Prelocutionist
Correct Answer C Perlocutionist
71. Select the correctly spelt word:
A Sacrilegious
B Sacreligious
C Sacriligious
D Sacrilegius
Correct Answer A Sacrilegious
72. Match the word with its synonym.
Words / Synonyms: i Ricochet — a Carom; ii Melancholy — b Heart-rending; iii Poignant — c Dejected; iv Subterfuge — d Ploy
Choose the correct match:
A i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
C i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
D i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
Correct Answer D i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
73. Given below are four scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
P sustainable economic growth
Q collaborative efforts among
R can only be achieved through
S government agencies and private enterprises
The most appropriate sequence is:
A P-R-Q-S
B R-O-S-P
C R-S-Q-P
D Q-R-S-P
Correct Answer A P-R-Q-S
74. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
A Neither of the proposals submitted by the committee members were found satisfactory.
B Hardly had the meeting begun when the power cut disrupted the proceedings.
C Each of the participants have expressed their concerns regarding the policy changes.
D The data collected from various sources indicated that the results are inconclusive.
Correct Answer B Hardly had the meeting begun when the power cut disrupted the proceedings
75. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The committee was divided in its opinion, and the chairman’s remarks only add fuel in the fire.
A added fuel into the fire
B added fuel to the fire
C add fuels into the fire
D add fuel to the fire
Correct Answer B added fuel to the fire
76. Which Indian athlete set a new National Indoor Record to win the gold medal in the Men’s Heptathlon at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships 2026 in China?
A Tajinderpal Singh Toor
B Jeswin Aldrin
C Tejaswin Shankar
D Vaibhav Sooryavanshi
Correct Answer C Tejaswin Shankar
77. The Services team defeated which state in the finals to become the champion of the 79th National Football Championship for the Santosh Trophy 2025–26?
A Kerala
B Maharashtra
C Assam
D Karnataka
Correct Answer C Assam
78. Match List-I (Buddhist Council) with List-II (venue/locations) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I / List-II (as in the question)
| List-I (Buddhist Councils) | List-II (Locations) |
|---|---|
| i. First Council | a. Vaishali |
| ii. Second Council | b. Rajgriha |
| iii. Third Council | c. Patliputra |
| iv. Fourth Council | d. Kashmir |
A i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
C i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
D i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d)
Correct Answer B i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
79. Which of the following pairs of literary works are correctly matched with their authors?
List-I / List-II (as in the question)
| Literature | Authors |
|---|---|
| I. Brihad Samhita | Aryabhatta |
| II. Mrichchhakatika | Shudraka |
| III. Milind Panho | Nagasena |
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III only
Correct Answer C II and III only
80. Consider the following statements regarding the Permanent Settlement (1793):
I. It was introduced by Lord Hastings in Bengal and Bihar.
II. The Zamindars were made the owners of the land, but their rights were subject to the “Sunset Law.”
III. The share of the Government was fixed at 1/6 of the total produce.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A II only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer A II only
81. Match List-I (Organization) with List-II (Founder) and select the correct answer:
List-I / List-II (as in the question)
| Organisation | Founders |
|---|---|
| i. Tattvabodhini Sabha | a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy |
| ii. Prarthana Samaj | b. Debendranath Tagore |
| iii. Satyashodhak Samaj | c. Jyotiba Phule |
| iv. Atmiya Sabha | d. Atmaram Pandurang |
A i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
B i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
C i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
D i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
Correct Answer C i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
82. Consider the following statements regarding the various proposals made during the Indian Freedom Struggle:
I. The August Offer (1940) was the first time the British explicitly promised the framing of a new Constitution by Indians themselves.
II. The Cripps Mission (1942) offered immediate transfer of constitutional powers but was rejected by Gandhi as a “post-dated cheque on a crashing bank.”
III. The Wavell Plan (1945) proposed a “Three-Tier” grouping of provinces into Sections A, B, and C to satisfy the Muslim League.
IV. The Mountbatten Plan (1947) mandated a plebiscite in the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) and the Sylhet district of Assam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A I and IV only
B I, II and III only
C I, II and IV only
D All of the above
Correct Answer B I, II and III only
83. How many of the following are tributaries of the river Krishna?
I. Bhima
II. Tungabhadra
III. Malprabha
IV. Kabini
V. Paleru
VI. Munneru
Choose the correct option:
A III only
B IV only
C V only
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
84. Consider the following statements regarding the “Western Ghats” and “Eastern Ghats”:
I. The Western Ghats are a continuous chain of mountains that can be crossed only through specific passes, whereas the Eastern Ghats are highly dissected by east-flowing rivers.
II. Deciduous forests are more dominant in the Western Ghats, while the Eastern Ghats are characterized primarily by Tropical Evergreen forests.
III. The Great Escarpment of the Western Ghats acts as a primary water divide between the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
Choose the correct statements:
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer C I and III only
85. Identify the correct pairs of states with their legislative capitals.
I. Maharashtra: Nagpur (summer), Mumbai (winter)
II. Himachal Pradesh: Shimla (summer), Dharamshala (winter)
III. Uttarakhand: Gairsain (summer), Dehradun (winter)
Choose the correct option:
A Only II
B I and II only
C II and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C II and III only
86. In the context of physics, why do we use a Convex Mirror as a ‘Rear-view mirror’ in vehicles?
I. It always forms an erect and diminished image.
II. It has a wider field of view as it is curved outwards.
III. It forms a real image of the objects behind.
Choose the correct option:
A II only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer B I and II only
87. Match the following List-I (Glands) with List-II (respective functions):
| List-I (Glands) | List-II (Functions) |
|---|---|
| i. Hypothalamus | a. Metabolism regulation |
| ii. Thymus | b. Regulates sleep patterns |
| iii. Thyroid | c. Large in infants, shrinks with age; trains T-cells |
| iv. Pineal gland | d. Controls the Pituitary |
(Options shown in the question: A) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c B) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b C) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b D) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c)
Correct Answer C i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
88. Consider the following statements regarding the properties of Acids and Bases:
I. Both acidic and basic solutions conduct electricity because they produce ions in aqueous solutions.
II. Antacids are weak bases that neutralize excess stomach acid.
III. Acidic solutions turn red litmus paper blue.
IV. Phenolphthalein remains colourless in acidic solution but turns pink in basic solution.
V. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is above 8.5.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
A II and IV only
B III and V only
C I, II and IV only
D II, III and V only
Correct Answer B III and V only
89. In the context of sanitation, “Greywater” primarily refers to wastewater generated from:
A Rainwater collected from rooftops
B Industrial effluents discharged from factories
C Bathrooms, kitchens, and laundry activities, excluding toilets
D Treated sewage water ready for potable reuse
Correct Answer C Bathrooms, kitchens, and laundry activities, excluding toilets
90. Under the “Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)” in India, which vaccine is given strictly at birth to protect against tuberculosis?
A OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)
B Rotavirus Vaccine
C Human Papillomavirus Vaccine (HPV)
D BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin)
Correct Answer D BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin)
91. The Chenab River is a tributary of which river system?
A Ganga
B Yamuna
C Brahmaputra
D Indus
Correct Answer D Indus
92. Consider the following statements regarding the glaciers of the Jammu and Kashmir region:
I. The Kolahoi Glacier, also known as the “Goddess of Light,” is the largest in the Kashmir Valley and is the primary source of the Lidder River.
II. The Thajwas Glacier, in the Sonamarg region, is a popular “hanging glacier” accessible to tourists.
III. The Machoi glacier, in the Sonamarg region, majorly feeds water to the Sind and Dras rivers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer D I, II and III
93. Consider the following statements about Manasbal Lake:
I. It is the deepest freshwater lake, located in the Poonch district of the Jammu and Kashmir.
II. The large growth of lotus (Nelumbo nucifera) at the periphery of the lake (blooms during July and August) adds to the beauty of the clear waters of the lake.
III. It is a good site for aquatic birds and birdwatching and has the sobriquet of “supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes”.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
A I only
B III only
C I and III only
D None of the above
Correct Answer A I only
94. Consider the following statements about ‘Dumhal’ in the Indian territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
I. It is one of the folk dance forms of the Wattal tribe of the region.
II. Only males can perform this dance on specific occasions and at set locations.
III. Dance is performed wearing long, colourful robes and tall, conical caps, studded with beads and shells.
IV. The performers move in a ritual manner and dig a banner (flag) into the ground before performing the dance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I, III and IV only
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
95. Which famous Persian chronicle records the medieval history of Kashmir?
A Rajtarangini
B Nilmat Purana
C Baharistan-i-shahi
D Rajadarshani
Correct Answer C Baharistan-i-shahi
96. Which of the following statements about the Peer Kho Cave Temple is/are correct?
I. A historic cave temple located near Jammu city was constructed by the first Dogra ruler, Maharaja Gulab Singh.
II. The lingam is located inside a small cave embellished with a white marble rectangular platform.
III. The cave is also known as the Jamavant Guffa, as the bear hero of Ramayana is believed to have meditated in Guffa.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C II and III only
97. Arrange the following events in the history of Jammu & Kashmir in chronological order:
I. Treaty of Lahore
II. Treaty of Amritsar
III. Accession of Maharaja Pratap Singh
IV. Coronation of Gulab Singh as Raja of Jammu by Maharaja Ranjit Singh
A I-II-III-IV
B I-III-II-IV
C IV-I-II-III
D IV-II-I-III
Correct Answer D IV-II-I-III
98. Match List-I with List-II (Authors — Books):
i. Diwan Kirpa Ram
ii. Abhinavagupta
iii. Jonaraja
iv. Kalhana
a. Rajtarangini
b. Gulabnama
c. Dvitiya Rajatarangini
d. Tantraloka
A i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
B i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
C i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
D i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Correct Answer B i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
99. Arrange the following foreign travellers to Kashmir in the order of their visit to the region.
I. Ou-Kong
II. Marco Polo
III. Francois Bernier
IV. Godfrey Vigne
A I-III-II-IV
B III-I-IV-II
C I-II-III-IV
D II-I-III-IV
Correct Answer C I-II-III-IV
100. Which of the following is the capital of the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu?
A Silvassa
B Daman
C Mahe
D None of the above
Correct Answer A Silvassa
101. Match the following List-I (Sacred Groves) with List-II (States):
i. Law Lyngdoh
ii. Sarpa Kavu
iii. Devban
iv. Gumpa Forest
a. Meghalaya
b. Kerala
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Arunachal Pradesh
Choose the correct match:
A i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
B i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
C i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
D i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
Correct Answer D i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
102. Which type of forest typically occurs in regions with annual rainfall of 70–100 cm, where trees shed their leaves completely during the dry season, giving the forest a grassland-like appearance?
A Thorn forests
B Littoral swamps
C Dry deciduous forests
D Montane forest
Correct Answer C Dry deciduous forests
103. According to the Indian State of the Forest Report (2023), which State/UT has the highest proportion of forest cover relative to its total geographical area?
A Lakshadweep
B Mizoram
C Andaman and Nicobar Islands
D None of the above
Correct Answer B Mizoram
104. How many of the following trees are examples of Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests?
I. Rosewood
II. Mahogany
III. Palash
IV. Sal
V. Aini
Choose the correct option:
A III only
B IV only
C II only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C II only
105. Under the Biodiversity Hotspots classification by Conservation International, a region must meet which of the following conditions to qualify?
I. It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation.
II. It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics.
III. It must be located in a tropical area only.
Choose the correct option:
A I only
B II only
C I and II only
D All of the above
Correct Answer C I and II only
106. Which of the following pairs of Biodiversity Heritage Sites (Biological Diversity Act, 2002) are correctly matched with their respective states?
A Unakoti – Tripura
B Ambaragudda – Kerala
C Asramam – Tamil Nadu
D Ameenpur Lake – Odisha
Correct Answer A Unakoti – Tripura
107. A researcher is studying the varying concentrations of ‘Curcumin’ in Curcuma longa (Turmeric) plants growing across different altitudes in the Shivalik hills. This is an assessment of:
A Species diversity
B Genetic diversity
C Ecosystem diversity
D Global diversity
Correct Answer B Genetic Diversity
108. A species whose presence or absence significantly has a disproportionately large impact on the structure and function of an entire community is known as a:
A Pioneer species
B Indicator species
C Keystone species
D Endemic species
Correct Answer C Keystone Species
109. Which of the following explains the meaning of IUCN Green Status to species?
A complements the Red List by assessing species recovery
B measures the level of species extinction in green forests
C measures the threat to wildlife having green colour
D measures the recovery of wetlands
Correct Answer A complements the Red List by assessing species recovery
110. Which of the following species in Jammu & Kashmir is currently classified as “Critically Endangered” on the IUCN Red List?
A Himalayan Bear
B Snow leopard
C Hangul
D Monal
Correct Answer C Hangul
111. If a species is listed in “Appendix I” of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), it means:
A The species is only protected within the borders of India
B Trade is permitted for commercial purposes with permission
C International trade of species is completely prohibited
D Trade is generally prohibited except for non-commercial purposes
Correct Answer C International trade of species is completely prohibited
112. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves in India are NOT recognised by UNESCO under its Man and Biosphere program?
A Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve
B Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
C Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve
D Manas Biosphere Reserve
Correct Answer A Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve
113. Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for Forest and Wildlife conservation in India:
I. Under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972, the “Chief Wildlife Warden” is the statutory authority empowered to control, manage, and maintain all Protected Areas within a State or Union Territory.
II. The state’s obligation to protect the Hangul is derived from the constitutional Article 51A(g).
Choose the correct statements:
A I only
B II only
C Both of the above
D Neither of the above
Correct Answer A I only
114. Which of the following Acts provide framework for the designation of “Critical Wildlife Habitats”:
I. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
II. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
III. Schedule Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
Choose the correct option:
A Only II
B Only III
C Only I and II
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
115. With reference to Tiger Conservation in India as of 2025–26, consider the following statements:
I. International Tiger Day is celebrated every year on 29th July to raise awareness about tiger conservation globally.
II. India is home to more than 70% of the world’s wild tiger population.
III. The initial phase of Project Tiger included the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve among 9 tiger reserves.
IV. The Prime Minister is the chairman of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
Choose the correct statements:
A I, II and III only
B II, III and IV only
C I, III and IV only
D All of the above
Correct Answer D All of the above
116. Which of the following species is NOT included under the International Big Cats Alliance, launched in the year 2023?
A Jaguar
B Puma
C Snow leopard
D Himalayan Wolf
Correct Answer D Himalayan Wolf
117. Consider the following statements about the Tiger reserves in India:
I. Karnataka has the highest number of tigers as per the latest Tiger Census.
II. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam in Andhra Pradesh is the largest Tiger Reserve in India by area.
III. Guru-Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla is located in the state of Telangana.
Identify the INCORRECT statements:
A II only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D II and III only
Correct Answer C I and III only
118. Which of the following mechanisms explains the increase in soil erosion after deforestation?
I. Reduction in interception of rainfall by the tree canopy
II. Decrease in the infiltration rate of water into the soil
III. Increase in evapotranspiration
IV. Loss of soil-binding root networks
Select the correct answer:
A I and IV only
B II and III only
C I, II and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
Correct Answer D I, II, III and IV
119. How does deforestation affect the water cycle (Hydrology)?
A Decreases surface runoff
B Decreases evapotranspiration
C Increases rainfall
D Increases groundwater levels
Correct Answer B Decreases evapotranspiration
120. Choose the correct statements about the National Action Plan to Combat Desertification:
I. The National Action Plan to Combat Desertification, 2023, was prepared, aiming for the restoration of 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030.
II. It was launched under the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD).
III. It also aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5–3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent by 2030 through additional forest and tree cover.
A II only
B III only
C I and II only
D I and III only
Correct Answer D I and III only
Analysis and Importance of the JKSSB Wildlife Guard Paper
Analyzing the JKSSB Wildlife Guard Question Paper helps candidates estimate their probable scores before the official results are announced. The 2026 paper followed a standard difficulty curve, focusing heavily on the Mathematics and geography of J&K, alongside general science relevant to wildlife and environment.
If you are a serious aspirant, you shouldn’t stop at just one paper. Many JKSSB exams share a similar syllabus structure; for instance, reviewing the JKSSB Website Operator Question Paper can provide additional insights into how the board frames technical and general aptitude questions.
Looking for more JKSSB Study Material?
Stay tuned for our detailed subject-wise analysis of the Wildlife Guard exam and expected cutoff marks, which we will be publishing shortly.
For any further updates related to JKSSB exam, you should regularly check the official JKSSB website.
