JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Exam Over — Full Question Paper, Answers & Expected Score
Download the memory-based JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Question Paper 2026 along with unofficial answer key, difficulty analysis, expected cutoff and interactive score calculator.
Big update for JKSSB aspirants! The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) has successfully conducted the Laboratory Attendant Exam 2026 for Home Department posts across various examination centres of Jammu & Kashmir on 10 May 2026. Candidates who appeared in the exam can now check the complete memory-based JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Question Paper 2026 along with unofficial answer key, detailed solutions, expected cutoff marks, exam analysis, and live score calculation facility. This page will be updated continuously as more questions are verified by candidates and subject experts.
📌 JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Exam Overview
| Exam Name | Laboratory Attendant |
| Department | Home Department |
| Exam Date | 10 May 2026 |
| Paper Type | Actual Paper |
| Status | Unofficial Answer Key Available |
Easy
Overall Level
87+
Good Attempts
120
Total Questions
Fully Solved Laboratory Attendant Question Paper (Held on 10th May, 2026)
1. A T.V. is sold at 8% gain. Had it been sold for Rs. 2553 less; there would have been loss of 15%. To gain 18% the selling price (in Rs.) of T.V. would be:
A) 11100
B) 13098
C) 15000
D) 9102
Answer: B) 13098
2. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is
A) 1/10
B) 1/100
C) 9/10
D) 90/100
Answer: A) 1/10
3. A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces of the cube. If ‘a’ is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere and ‘b’ is the ratio of the surface area of the sphere to the surface area of the cube, then the value of ‘ab’ is:
A) π²/30
B) 4
C) 36/π²
D) 1
Answer: D) 1
4. In a medical transaction, 17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage?
A) Loss 15%
B) Gain 17.5%
C) Gain 12.5%
D) Loss 30%
Answer: C) Gain 12.5%
5. It is decided that a loan of 10,000 will be paid off at the rate of 800 per month in 15 equal instalments. Find out the rate of return on investment.
A) 16% P.a.
B) 18% P.a.
C) 15% P.a.
D) 17% P.a.
Answer: A) 16% P.a.
6. A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number of black and brown pairs of socks in the original order was:
A) 2:1
B) 1:4
C) 1:2
D) 4:1
Answer: C) 1:2
7. A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such a way that the edges of the base of the cone are touching the edges of one of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the opposite face of the cube. If the volume of the cube is 343 cc, what approximately is the volume of the cone?
A) 70 cc
B) 80 cc
C) 90 cc
D) 60 cc
Answer: A) 70 cc
8. The compound interest (compounding annually) on a certain sum at the rate of 8 percent per annum for two years is Rs. 6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of interest for two years?
A) Rs. 6224
B) Rs. 6400
C) Rs. 5600
D) Rs. 6336
Answer: D) Rs. 6336
9. The length breadth and height of a rectangular box are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4, respectively, and the cost of covering it with a sheet of paper at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per square metre is Rs. 1,950. Find 50% of the volume of the box (in m³)
A) 1500
B) 1750
C) 1800
D) 1600
Answer: D) 1600
10. A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up.
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 2/3
Answer: D) 2/3
11. Complete the Number Series:
Number Series 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
A) 189
B) 191
C) 187
D) 193
Answer: B) 191
12. Complete the Number Series:
Number Series 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
A) 46
B) 48
C) 49
D) 50
Answer: B) 48
13. Complete the Number Series:
Number Series 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
A) 18
B) 20
C) 21
D) 22
Answer: C) 21
14. Complete the Letter Series:
Letter series Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
A) G
B) F
C) I
D) J
Answer: B) F
15. Complete the Letter Series:
Letter series AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
A) EV
B) EU
C) EW
D) DV
Answer: A) EV
16. Complete the Letter Series:
Letter series A, C, B, E, D, H, ?
A) F
B) G
C) E
D) I
Answer: B) G
17. If COMPUTER is coded as FRPSXWHU, how is SCIENCE coded?
A) VFLHQFH
B) VFNHQFH
C) VFJHQFH
D) UFLHQFH
Answer: A) VFLHQFH
18. If DOG is written as WLT, how is CAT written?
A) XZG
B) XZK
C) XZL
D) YZL
Answer: C) XZL
19. Ravi walks 15 m east, then 12 m north, then 15 m west, and finally 5 m south. In which direction is Ravi now with respect to his starting point?
A) North
B) North-West
C) South
D) North-East
Answer: A) North
20. A man faces south. He turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and again 270° clock wise. Which direction is he facing now?
A) North
B) East
C) South
D) West
Answer: B) East
21. If A + B means A is the mother of B, A – B means A is the brother of B, A × B means A is the father of B, What does P – Q × R + S mean?
A) P is maternal uncle of S
B) P is paternal uncle of S
C) P is father of S
D) P is brother of S
Answer: B) P is paternal uncle of S
22. Introducing a woman, Raj said,” She is the wife of the only son of my mother-in-law.” How is the woman related to Raj?
A) Sister
B) Wife
C) Sister-in-law
D) Cousin
Answer: B) Wife
23. Consider the following statement:
Statement:
“There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms.”
Possible Causes:
I. Affordable internet availability
II. Increased demand for flexible learning
Choose the correct option :
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Answer: C) Both I and II
24. Consider the following statement:
Statement:
All teachers are educated.
Conclusion:
Some educated people are teachers.
A) True
B) False
C) Cannot be determined
D) Invalid
Answer: A) True
25. A car covers a distance at 50 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
A) 44.4 km/h
B) 46.4 km/h
C) 46.8 km/h
D) 48.6 km/h
Answer: A) 44.4 km/h
26. If a man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1 hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
Answer: C) 5 hours
27. Two trains of lengths 120 m and 180 m are moving in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 72 km/h respectively. How long will they take to cross each other?
A) 12 sec
B) 9 sec
C) 15 sec
D) 20 sec
Answer: B) 9 sec
28. Consider the following statement:
Statement:
All fruits are sweet. All apples are fruits.
Conclusion:
All apples are sweet.
A) True
B) False
C) Cannot be determined
D) Invalid
Answer: A) True
29. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All squares are rectangles.
Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Answer: B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
30. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): No cat is a dog.
Reason (R): Some dogs are pets.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Answer: B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
31. Consider the following statements regarding India’s nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act, 2025.
(I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation.
(II) India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2030.
(III) The SHANTI Act, 2025 retains unlimited supplier liability for nuclear damage to ensure enhanced accountability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Answer: A) I only
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option.
Military Exercises — Partner Country
i. Yudh Abhyaas — a. USA
ii. Zapad — b. Egypt
iii. Mitra-Shakti — c. Sri Lanka
iv. Bright Star — d. Russia
Choose the correct match :
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
C) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-d, ii-a, iii-a, iv-c
Answer: B) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
33. Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council.
I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years.
III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above
Answer: C) I and III only
34. Consider the following statements about India’s Space mission’s achievements.
I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation’s first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years.
II. SPaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I Nor II
Answer: A) I only
35. In India’s three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is considered important because
I. It is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design.
II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material.
III. By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
Answer: D) I, II and III
36. ITER is considered important for India and the world because
I. It demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future.
II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research.
III. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Answer: B) I and II only
37. Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025.
I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela.
II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Answer: D) Neither I nor II
38. Consider the following statements:
I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports.
II. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India’s service imports were greater than its exports.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Answer: D) Neither I nor II
39. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards.
Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development.
Which of the statements is/are correct:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Answer: D) A is false, R is true
40. Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42°C and Place Y records 32°C. During winter, Place X records 0°C and Place Y records 10°C. What is the most plausible explanation?
A) Variation in the altitudes of Place X and Y
B) Land has a higher specific heat capacity than oceans
C) Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
D) Variation in thermal insulation at places X and Y
Answer: C) Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
41. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030-31.
Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production of pulses and sustainably improve farmers’ incomes.
Which of the statement is/are correct:
A) Statement I and Statement II are correct
B) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: A) Statement I and Statement II are correct
42. Match the following ports with their associated features
Ports — Special features
i. Kamarajar port — a. first corporatised major port
ii. JNPT port — b. first deep-water transshipment hub
iii. Paradip port — c. India’s first landlord-model port
iv. Vizhinjam port — d. Top cargo-handling major port
Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
Answer: B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
43. Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order:
I. Battle of Mudki
II. Battle of Ferozeshah
III. Battle of Aliwal
IV. Battle of Sobraon
Choose the correct option
A) I-II-III-IV
B) I-III-II-IV
C) II-I-III-IV
D) II-III-I-IV
Answer: A) I-II-III-IV
44. Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct?
I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect.
II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.
III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry.
Choose the correct option :
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III
D) I, II and III
Answer: C) I and III
45. How many of the following pairs are correct?
Wetlands — Major associated District
Hokersar wetland — Srinagar district
Mansar lake — Samba district
Wular lake — Bandipora district
Hygam wetland — Baramulla district
Choose the correct option :
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
46. Match the following:
Districts — Products under One District One Product (ODOP)
i. Baramulla — a. Pickles
ii. Udhampur — b. Apples
iii. Samba — c. Honey
iv. Ramban — d. Mushroom products
Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
Answer: B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
47. Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme operational in J&K UT.
I. “Mumkin – Livelihood Generation Scheme” is an initiative specifically aimed at empowering its young population.
II. It provides upto Rs. 80000 subsidy or 10% of the on-road price, whichever is lower for unemployed youth to purchase small commercial vehicles.
III. The age of the applicant should be between 18 to 35 years.
Choose the correct option :
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Answer: D) I, II and III
48. Which of the following species in the J&K region has Endangered status as per the IUCN Red Book?
I. Hangul
II. Snow Leopard
III. Ibex
IV. Himalayan Tahr
V. Markhor
VI. Cheer Pheasant
Choose the correct option :
A) I, III, IV and V only
B) II, IV, V and VI only
C) II, III, IV and VI only
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
49. Which of the following was not a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019?
A) The J&K High Court became the common high court for both UTs.
B) Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.
C) The UT of J&K will have its own legislative assembly of 107-114 members.
D) The act provides that the administration of Jammu and Kashmir will be as per Article 239A of the Indian Constitution.
Answer: B) Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.
50. Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Jhelum?
I. Niki Tawi
II. Veshaw river
III. Brengi river
IV. Jajhar
V. Rambiara river
Choose the correct option :
A) I, II and III only
B) II, III and IV only
C) II, III and V only
D) II, III, IV and V only
Answer: C) II, III and V only
51. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force becomes:
A) Double
B) Four times
C) Half
D) One-fourth
Answer: D) One-fourth
52. Match the following Organic Acids with their corresponding sources
ACIDS — SOURCES
i. Oxalic acid — a. Dark chocolate
ii. Acetic acid — b. Ant sting
iii. Ascorbic acid — c. Apples
iv. Methanoic acid — d. Guava, amla
v. Malic acid — e. Vinegar
Choose the correct option :
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e
B) i-e, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a, v-b
C) i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-c, v-d
D) i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c
Answer: D) i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c
53. Identify the correct source of energy based on the following statements.
I. It is a non-renewable but low-carbon energy source.
II. It is a reliable source of energy but poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety concerns.
III. A huge amount of energy is released through the fission process.
A) Compressed Natural Gas
B) Petroleum Products
C) Fossil Fuels
D) Nuclear Fuels
Answer: D) Nuclear Fuels
54. Which of the following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy?
A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine.
B) Tidal barrage systems are dam-like structures across ocean inlets that use tidal flow through turbines during high and low tides to generate electricity.
C) Tidal stream systems use underwater turbines placed in moving tidal currents to convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.
D) Wave energy systems convert the mechanical motion of ocean waves into electrical energy.
Answer: A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine.
55. Which of the following non-metals exists in the liquid state at room temperature?
A) Sulphur
B) Bromine
C) Phosphorus
D) Iodine
Answer: B) Bromine
56. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals?
I. Form basic oxides
II. Good reducing agents
III. High electronegativity
IV. High ionization energy
Choose the correct option :
A) Only I, II
B) Only III and IV
C) Only I, II and IV
D) Only II, III and IV
Answer: A) Only I, II
57. Which gas is produced when water reacts with calcium?
A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
Answer: A) Hydrogen
58. What happens when magnesium sulphate solution is added to copper metal?
A) Copper displaces magnesium, forming copper sulphate
B) Magnesium displaces copper, forming magnesium sulphate
C) Hydrogen gas is evolved
D) No reaction occurs
Answer: D) No reaction occurs
59. Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of reactivity
I. Gold
II. Calcium
III. Silver
IV. Cobalt
V. Magnesium
VI. Nickel
VII. Platinum
VIII. Lithium
Choose the correct option :
A) I < II < III < IV < V < VI < VII < VIII
B) VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I
C) VIII < V < II < IV < VI < I < III < VII
D) VIII < VII < III < IV < VI < V < II < I
Answer: B) VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I
60. Which of the following pairs is correct with respect to ores and the metals present in these ores?
A) Sulphate ores ; Iron (Iron pyrites, FeS₂)
B) Oxide ores ; Zinc (Hemimorphite, 2ZnO·SiO₂·H₂O)
C) Halide ores ; Silver (Horn silver, AgCl)
D) Silicate ores ; Lead (Anglesite, PbSO₄)
Answer: C) Halide ores ; Silver (Horn silver, AgCl)
61. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals in accordance with the activity series?
I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds.
II. Moderately reactive metals (zinc, iron, lead, etc.) are extracted by reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide.
III. Less reactive metals (copper, mercury) can be obtained simply by heating ores.
Choose the correct option
A) Only II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
62. Which term best describes the mode of nutrition in both yeast and mushrooms?
A) Saprophytic
B) Autotrophic
C) Parasitic
D) Holozoic
Answer: A) Saprophytic
63. Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange?
A) Lenticels
B) Stomata
C) Xylem
D) Phloem
Answer: B) Stomata
64. Which of the following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
A) Nephrons
B) Bowman’s capsule
C) Glottis
D) Glomerulus
Answer: C) Glottis
65. Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
A) Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
B) Biodegradable: DDT, Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
C) Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Leather, Animal bones
D) Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Animal bones ; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Leather
Answer: A) Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
66. The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is:
A) Algae → Crab → Sea urchins → Squid → Spotted dolphin → Tiger shark
B) Sea urchins → Algae → Crab → Squid → Tiger shark → Spotted dolphin
C) Algae → Sea urchins → Crab → Squid → Spotted dolphin → Tiger shark
D) Tiger shark → Spotted dolphin → Squid → Crab → Sea urchins → Algae
Answer: C) Algae → Sea urchins → Crab → Squid → Spotted dolphin → Tiger shark
67. Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources?
A) Halons — Soil fumigant
B) Methyl bromide — Degreasing solvent
C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) — Fire extinguishers
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) — Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
Answer: D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) — Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
68. In Mendel’s pea plant experiments, which of the following is recessive?
A) The trait that appears in all F₁ hybrids
B) The trait that hides in F₁ but reappears in F₂
C) The trait that increases with each generation
D) The trait that only appears in the parental generation
Answer: B) The trait that hides in F₁ but reappears in F₂
69. Match the categories of asexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples:
i. Vegetative propagation
ii. Fragmentation
iii. Budding
iv. Spore formation
a. Mosses and liverworts
b. Begonia and Bryophyllum
c. Yeast and Hydra
d. Clostridium and Bacillus
Choose the correct option
A) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Answer: A) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
70. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates?
I. These are a subphylum of chordates that are characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone.
II. They show bilateral symmetry.
III. It includes animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.
Choose the correct option:
A) Only I
B) Only I and II
C) Only I and III
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
71. In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is:
A) Faulty keyboard or mouse
B) Insufficient RAM
C) Disconnected network cable
D) Corrupted printer driver
Answer: B) Insufficient RAM
72. Which of the following statements correctly describes a tactile display (also known as a refreshable braille display)?
A) It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.
B) It is a specialized monitor that uses haptic vibrations across a glass screen to simulate the texture of printed text.
C) It is a peripheral device that converts text from a computer screen into high-speed audio for the visually impaired.
D) It is a static hardware interface where Braille characters are permanently engraved into a metal plate for reading.
Answer: A) It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.
73. Which statement is correct regarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software?
A) System software is hardware-independent because it interacts with hardware only via high-level languages.
B) Firmware is classified as application software since it is stored in non-volatile memory and executes user-level tasks.
C) An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
D) Installing application software can directly modify CPU microarchitecture without involving system software.
Answer: C) An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
74. Which of the following statements about input and output devices is MOST accurate?
A) A capacitive touchscreen is strictly an output device because it displays images, and the touch functionality is handled by the operating system, not the hardware.
B) Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices because they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.
C) A combined digitizer tablet with a stylus is both an input and output device because it can detect pressure and movement and can also display feedback to the user through a connected screen.
D) Braille displays are output devices because they allow visually impaired users to sense the display with haptic vibrations.
Answer: C) A combined digitizer tablet with a stylus is both an input and output device because it can detect pressure and movement and can also display feedback to the user through a connected screen.
75. A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Recently, several systems started showing some issue: the computer powers on (fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. The monitors and cables have been tested and are working fine. A technician swaps the operating system drive from a working computer into one of the faulty systems, but the problem still persists. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the faulty systems, but the problem still persists. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A) The operating system is corrupted and needs to be reinstalled
B) The graphics driver is outdated and incompatible with the monitor
C) A hardware failure in a core internal component
D) The monitor resolution settings are unsupported by the operating system.
Answer: C) A hardware failure in a core internal component
76. A student creates the following VBA script in MS Access and attaches it to the “On Click” event of a button on a form:
A) It filters and displays only students who scored below 40 marks in the form
B) It automatically updates every record in the students table
C) It deletes all records of students who scored below 40 marks
D) It creates a new table that stores the result (Pass/Fail) separately from the Students table
Answer: A) It filters and displays only students who scored below 40 marks in the form
77. Anaya is making a long report in MS Word. She wants pages 1–3 to use Roman numerals (i, ii, iii) and the rest to start from 1, 2, 3…. She does not know how to set different page numbering styles in one document. What should she do?
A) Use Mixed Numbering from the Insert tab
B) Add a section break and format page numbers separately
C) Use the Pagination Wizard from the Layout tab and assign custom numbering templates
D) Change the numbering style from the Font settings
Answer: B) Add a section break and format page numbers separately
78. Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through a LAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISP or the Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss using Gmail. Can Riya send the email?
A) Yes, because Gmail can temporarily store emails in the LAN cache and sync later
B) No, because Gmail requires a Wi-Fi network to operate
C) Yes, because Ethernet supports internal cloud routing for web apps
D) No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
Answer: D) No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
79. While sending an email with a large attachment, Aarav notices that the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature makes this possible?
A) Cloud storage integration
B) SMTP compression
C) Dynamic attachment routing
D) Internet caching protocol
Answer: A) Cloud storage integration
80. Match the terms (Column-A) with their most accurate descriptions (Column-B):
Column-A
i. Cache Memory
ii. Register
iii. Interpreter
iv. Compiler
Column-B
a. Translates entire programs before execution
b. Named memory locations build in processor
c. Executes instructions one line at a time without separate object code
d. Small storage location inside CPU for immediate operations
Choose the correct option:
A) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
Answer: D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
81. A digital artist wants to create detailed and beautiful digital drawings on his computer. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely on the computer?
A) Graphics tablet
B) Digital stroke enhancer
C) Precision art interface pad
D) Visual rendering controller
Answer: A) Graphics tablet
82. A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer to speed up video rendering. After installation, the computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features until it installs an additional component that allows the operating system and applications to communicate properly with the hardware. What does she need to install?
A) Hardware synchronization module
B) Digital performance translator
C) System interface accelerator
D) Device driver
Answer: D) Device driver
83. Which of the following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system?
A) It allows programs to use more memory than the physically available RAM
B) It uses disk space to extend the apparent main memory
C) It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage
D) It loads only required portions of programs into RAM when needed
Answer: C) It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage
84. Which component of an operating system is primarily responsible for maintaining the mapping between file names and their physical storage locations?
A) File system directory structure
B) Memory allocation dispatcher
C) Data locality controller
D) Storage routing interface
Answer: A) File system directory structure
85. A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system mainly for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which operating system would be most suitable?
A) Windows
B) Linux
C) Mac OS
D) Standalone firmware OS
Answer: B) Linux
86. Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters a URL?
A) Browser downloads the page directly from the ISP
B) SMTP resolves the name and transfers the webpage
C) DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page
D) The search engine fetches and renders the page
Answer: C) DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page
87. Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use?
A) Global Slide Replication
B) Layout Replicator
C) Theme Designer
D) Slide Master
Answer: D) Slide Master
88. Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average of cells A1 to A5 only if their total sum is greater than 100, otherwise she wants Excel to display “Low”. She writes the following formula:
=IF((SUM(A1:A5)>100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),”Low”)))
A) Yes, it will work correctly
B) Yes, but it works only with integers
C) No, it will not work because of a syntax issue
D) No, it will not work because of incorrect logic
Answer: C) No, it will not work because of a syntax issue
89. Which feature allows a user to apply a uniform layout, fonts, and design elements automatically across all pages or slides in a document or presentation?
A) Global formatting synchronizer
B) Master template system
C) Layout replication engine
D) Universal style broadcaster
Answer: B) Master template system
90. Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis?
A) Matrix virtualization framework
B) Database management
C) Grid processing interface
D) Structured data renderer
Answer: B) Database management
91. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Persiflage
A) Criticism
B) Banter
C) Seriousness
D) Argument
Answer: B) Banter
92. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Recalcitrant
A) Compliant
B) Submissive
C) Rebellious
D) Docile
Answer: C) Rebellious
93. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Succinct
A) Laconic
B) Pithy
C) Long-winded
D) Concise
Answer: C) Long-winded
94. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Perturbed
A) Calm
B) Unsettled
C) Worried
D) Anxious
Answer: A) Calm
95. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.
Ancient mythologies
P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes
Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy
R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling
S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries.
Choose the correct option :
A) SQRP
B) QRPS
C) RPQS
D) PRSQ
Answer: C) RPQS
96. Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants.
II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production.
III. However, their population has been steadily declining.
IV. The major reason for this are habitat loss and pesticides.
Choose the correct option :
A) III-II-I-IV
B) IV-I-II-III
C) II-I-III-IV
D) I-III-IV-II
Answer: C) II-I-III-IV
97. Select the correct direct form of the given sentence:
She asked me why I had been smoking that day
A) She says to me, “Why were you smoking this day?”
B) She said to me, “Why are you smoking today?”
C) She said to me, “Why you smoke today?”
D) She said to me, “Why were you smoking today?”
Answer: D) She said to me, “Why were you smoking today?”
98. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Give a piece of one’s mind
A) To advise someone
B) To rebuke someone strongly
C) To donate something valuable
D) To share one’s ideas
Answer: B) To rebuke someone strongly
99. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging
A) truant
B) itinerant
C) migrant
D) Vagrant
Answer: D) Vagrant
100. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. “Hello”, he said to his friend. “What can I do for you?”
A) He asked and greeted his friend that what he can do for him.
B) He told hello and asked his friend what he could do for him.
C) He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
D) He said hello and asked his friend what can do for him.
Answer: C) He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
101. According to the passage, why do scientific revolutions represent a rupture rather than a continuation of prior science?
A) Because scientists abandon objectivity and turn to speculation.
B) Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible
C) Because new paradigms invalidate all previous findings.
D) Because scientists stop collecting empirical data.
Answer: B) Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible
102. From the above passage, Identify the voice used in the sentence:
“Anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure.”
A) Active voice
B) Middle voice
C) Passive voice
D) Reflexive voice
Answer: C) Passive voice
103. What type of clause is used in the sentence given below from the above passage:
“Yet, over time, anomalies that cannot be explained within the current paradigm accumulate”.
A) Noun clause
B) Relative clause
C) Adverbial clause
D) Independent clause
Answer: B) Relative clause
104. Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition’s case piece by logic piece.
A) dismantling the opposition’s case
B) The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively
C) and with surgical precision
D) piece by logic piece
Answer: D) piece by logic piece
105. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
(I) She quick finished her homework / (II) before dinner, eager to join her friends/ (III) at the park for / (IV) an exciting game of soccer.
A) IV
B) I
C) III
D) II
Answer: B) I
106. Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank.
Hiren loves to use ______ words while writing anything.
A) coloquial
B) colloquil
C) colloquial
D) colloqual
Answer: C) colloquial
107. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Despite the ______ challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
A) formidable
B) negligible
C) trivial
D) insignificant
Answer: A) formidable
108. Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence.
I enjoyed myself during the holidays.
Here, Myself is a ______ pronoun.
A) demonstrative
B) possessive
C) distributive
D) reflexive
Answer: D) reflexive
109. Which word has a spelling mistake?
A) Convalescence
B) Conflagaration
C) Obsequious
D) Reticent
Answer: B) Conflagaration
110. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select ‘No substitution required’.
“Can you give me so many examples of subordinate clauses?”, the teacher asked the class.
A) some more examples of
B) some many examples of
C) some few examples of
D) No substitution required
Answer: A) some more examples of
111. The sum of the 3rd and the 4th term of an A.P. is 19 and that of the 1st and the 7th term is 22. Find the 9th term.
A) 16
B) 17
C) 15
D) 26
Answer: A) 16
112. Which one of the following is true?
A) √5 + √3 > √6 + √2
B) √5 + √3 < √6 + √2
C) √5 + √3 = √6 + √2
D) (√5 + √3)(√6 + √2) = 1
Answer: A) √5 + √3 > √6 + √2
113. A right circular cone of largest volume is cut out from a solid wooden hemisphere. The remaining material is what percentage of the volume of the original hemisphere?
A) 33.33%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 66.66%
Answer: D) 66.66%
114. If x and y are real numbers, then the minimum value of x² + 4xy + 6y² – 4y + 4 is
A) – 4
B) 0
C) 2
D) 4
Answer: C) 2
115. The sum of the height and radius of the base of a solid right circular cylinder is 46 cm. If the total surface area of the solid cylinder is 6072 cm², what is the volume (in cm³) of the cylinder? (take π = 22/7)
A) 6072 π
B) 1085 π
C) 3036 π
D) 11025 π
Answer: D) 11025 π
116. Two metallic right circular cones having their heights 3.8 cm and 4.6 cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter (in cm) of the sphere is:
A) 4.2
B) 1.4
C) 3.5
D) 6.3
Answer: A) 4.2
117. Shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were found to be damaged and he sold them with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage.
A) 30%
B) 10%
C) 16.25%
D) 32.5%
Answer: C) 16.25%
118. If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then the sum (in Rs.) is:
A) 12,000
B) 15,000
C) 25,000
D) 20,000
Answer: B) 15,000
119. X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and G.M. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X?
A) 125
B) 81
C) 49
D) 25
Answer: C) 49
120. The cost price of articles X and Y is the same. Article X is sold at 20% profit and article Y is sold for Rs. 126 less than the selling price of X. If the net profit by selling both the articles is 14%, then what is the cost price (in Rs.) of each article?
A) 1,260
B) 840
C) 1,080
D) 1,050
Answer: D) 1,050
📊 JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Expected Cutoff 2026
- General Category: 76–82 Marks
- OBC: 72–78 Marks
- SC/ST: 68–74 Marks
- EWS: 73–79 Marks
